Nokea
A 30-year-old woman, G 4, P 4, has delivered a healthy term female neonate by cesarean delivery due to a nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. At 2 hours postpartum, the nurse assesses the client's retention catheter and observes that the client's urine is slightly red tinged. Which of the following should the nurse do next?
- A. Continue to monitor the client's input and output.
- B. Massage the client's fundus gently every 15 minutes.
- C. Assess the placement of the retention catheter.
- D. Contact the client's physician for further orders.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Red-tinged urine may indicate catheter trauma or misplacement, requiring assessment of catheter placement.
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The nurse is managing care of a primigravida at full term who is in active labor. What should be included in developing the plan of care for this client?
- A. Oxygen saturation monitoring every half hour.
- B. Supine positioning on back, if it is comfortable.
- C. Anesthesia/pain level assessment every 30 minutes.
- D. Vaginal bleeding, ROM assessment every shift.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Regular assessment of anesthesia/pain levels is critical to ensure the client's comfort and to adjust pain management strategies as labor progresses. Oxygen saturation monitoring is not typically required every half hour unless specific complications arise. Supine positioning can cause supine hypotensive syndrome and is generally avoided. Vaginal bleeding and rupture of membranes (ROM) assessments are important but typically performed more frequently than every shift during active labor.
A 32-year-old multigravida returns to the clinic for a routine prenatal visit at 36 weeks' gestation. She has had a prior pregnancy with pregnancy-induced hypertension. The assessments during this visit include BP 140/90, P 80, and +2 edema of the ankles and feet. Based on the client's past history and current assessment, what further information should the nurse obtain to determine if this client is becoming preeclamptic?
- A. Headaches.
- B. Blood glucose level.
- C. Proteinuria.
- D. Edema in lower extremities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Proteinuria is a key indicator of preeclampsia, distinguishing it from gestational hypertension.
A client is considering the contraceptive patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply a new patch daily for three weeks, then skip a week.
- B. Change the patch weekly for three weeks, then have a patch-free week.
- C. Wear the patch for one month, then replace it.
- D. Apply the patch to the genital area for best results.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The contraceptive patch is changed weekly for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week to allow for a withdrawal bleed. It is not applied daily, worn for a month, or placed on the genital area.
A neonate born at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted to the neonatal nursery for observation. The neonate's mother, who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, has received no prenatal care. The mother asks the nurse if her neonate is positive for HIV. The nurse can tell the mother which of the following?
- A. More than $50 \%$ of neonates born to mothers who are positive for HIV will be positive at 18 months of age.'
- B. An enlarged liver at birth generally means the neonate is HIV positive.'
- C. A complete blood count analysis is the primary method for determining whether the neonate is HIV positive.'
- D. Most neonates are asymptomatic at birth and usually test positive for the HIV antibody at this time.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Most neonates born to HIV-positive mothers test positive for HIV antibodies at birth due to maternal antibody transfer but are asymptomatic, with true infection status determined later.
A client has obtained Plan B (levonorgestrel 0.75 mg, 2 tablets) as emergency contraception. After unprotected intercourse, the client calls the clinic to ask questions about taking the contraceptives. The nurse realizes the client needs further explanation when she makes which of the following responses?
- A. I can wait 3 to 4 days after intercourse to start taking these to prevent pregnancy.
- B. My boyfriend can buy Plan B from the pharmacy if he is over 18 years old.
- C. The birth control works by preventing ovulation or fertilization of the egg.
- D. I can be discussed and have breast tenderness or a headache after using the contraceptive.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Plan B is most effective when taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse, ideally as soon as possible. Waiting 3 to 4 days reduces its efficacy, indicating a need for further explanation.