Nokea
A 30-year-old woman has severe lower abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding. She tells you that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. On the basis of these findings, you should suspect:
- A. a normal pregnancy.
- B. a ruptured ovarian cyst.
- C. an ectopic pregnancy.
- D. a spontaneous abortion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe lower abdominal pain, light vaginal bleeding, and a history of missed periods are concerning for an ectopic pregnancy. The absence of a normal menstrual period along with these symptoms raises suspicion for an ectopic pregnancy, which requires immediate medical attention due to the risk of rupture and life-threatening complications. A normal pregnancy would typically present with different symptoms such as a positive pregnancy test and typical signs of early pregnancy. A ruptured ovarian cyst may present with similar symptoms but typically lacks the history of missed periods. A spontaneous abortion usually involves heavier bleeding and tissue passage, which is not described in this scenario.
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Which of the following clinical signs would MOST suggest acute respiratory distress in a 2-month-old infant?
- A. Heart rate of 130 beats/min
- B. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min
- C. Abdominal breathing
- D. Grunting respirations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Grunting respirations are a key clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. Grunting is a protective mechanism where the infant exhales against a partially closed glottis to increase functional residual capacity and oxygenation. This is often seen in conditions such as respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia, or other causes of respiratory compromise in infants. Monitoring respiratory patterns like grunting is crucial for early recognition and intervention in infants with respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to acute respiratory distress in infants. While an elevated heart rate and respiratory rate can be present in respiratory distress, grunting respirations are a more direct indicator of significant respiratory compromise in infants.
Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?
- A. Vertex presentation
- B. Maternal hypertension
- C. Prolapsed umbilical cord
- D. Premature rupture of the amniotic sac
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.
What are the MOST important initial steps in assessing and managing a newborn?
- A. Drying and warming the infant, obtaining an APGAR score.
- B. Clearing the airway, keeping the infant warm.
- C. Suctioning the airway, obtaining a heart rate.
- D. Keeping the infant warm, counting respirations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial initial steps in assessing and managing a newborn involve clearing the airway to ensure proper breathing and keeping the infant warm to maintain body temperature. Airway clearance helps prevent respiratory distress, while warmth is essential to prevent hypothermia, a common issue in newborns. These steps are vital in the immediate care of a newborn to support their transition to extrauterine life and ensure their well-being. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining an APGAR score is important but not as critical as clearing the airway. Choice C is incorrect as suctioning the airway is not always necessary and obtaining a heart rate is secondary to ensuring a clear airway and warmth. Choice D is incorrect because counting respirations is not as immediate and crucial as clearing the airway.
You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:
- A. gravida 2, para 1.
- B. gravida 2, para 0.
- C. gravida 1, para 1.
- D. gravida 0, para 2.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.
Your assessment of a newborn reveals cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What should you do first?
- A. Dry the infant briskly.
- B. Suction the mouth.
- C. Begin artificial ventilations.
- D. Begin chest compressions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a newborn with cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min, the priority action is to begin artificial ventilations. A heart rate below 100 beats/min with cyanosis indicates a need for immediate respiratory support to improve oxygenation. Drying the infant briskly or suctioning the mouth may be necessary later but are not the initial priority. Chest compressions are not indicated as the heart rate is above 60 beats/min.