Nokea
A 30-year-old woman is taking an oral contraceptive and is concerned about the potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Oral contraceptives can cause weight loss and increased energy levels.
- B. Oral contraceptives can cause increased appetite and weight gain.
- C. Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.
- D. Oral contraceptives have no side effects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.' It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about common side effects of oral contraceptives, such as headaches and breast tenderness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss and increased energy levels (Choice A) are not common side effects of oral contraceptives. Similarly, increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not typical side effects. Finally, stating that oral contraceptives have no side effects (Choice D) is inaccurate as they can have various side effects, albeit usually mild and manageable.
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What physiological reaction occurs in the body with the 'Fight or flight' response?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Constricted pupils
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The 'fight or flight' response is a primal physiological reaction that prepares the body to respond to a perceived threat or danger. This response triggers an increase in heart rate to pump more blood to the muscles and vital organs, preparing the body for action. Choice B, 'Constricted pupils,' is part of the 'fight or flight' response as well, as it helps improve focus and vision. Choice C, 'Decreased blood pressure,' is incorrect because blood pressure typically increases to ensure adequate circulation during the 'fight or flight' response. Choice D, 'Decreased heart rate,' is incorrect as the heart rate increases to supply more oxygen and nutrients to the body during times of stress.
A patient has been prescribed mifepristone (RU-486) to terminate a pregnancy. How does this drug achieve its therapeutic effect?
- A. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.
- B. By increasing estrogen levels, which induce uterine contractions.
- C. By altering the uterine lining, preventing implantation.
- D. By stimulating uterine contractions, which expel the embryo.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.
A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?
- A. "AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease."
- B. "AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains."
- C. "AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it."
- D. "AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, "AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it," it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.
Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining?
- A. Incontinence
- B. Pyelonephritis
- C. Urinary calculi
- D. Cystitis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cystitis. Cystitis specifically refers to the inflammation of the bladder lining. Choice A, Incontinence, refers to the loss of bladder control and is not related to inflammation. Choice B, Pyelonephritis, is the inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis, not the bladder lining. Choice C, Urinary calculi, refers to the formation of stones in the urinary tract and is not related to bladder inflammation.
What are the characteristics of the inflammatory process?
- A. Loss of function, coolness
- B. Pain, redness
- C. Heat, pallor
- D. Swelling, pallor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain, redness. Inflammation is characterized by pain and redness as part of the body's response to tissue injury. Choice A, loss of function and coolness, are not primary characteristics of inflammation. Choice C, heat and pallor, may be present in some cases but are not as consistently associated with inflammation as pain and redness. Choice D, swelling and pallor, includes swelling which is common in inflammation but pallor is not a typical characteristic.