A 32-year-old male client is a marketing representative. His job requires him to have a tremendous amount of energy during the day. He frequently uses cocaine to sustain his energy level. Lately he has increased his use of cocaine and even experimented with crack cocaine. Realizing he can no longer continue this destructive behavior, he is seeking treatment for cocaine addiction. In planning nursing care for the client's inpatient stay, which expected outcome is most appropriate?
- A. He will attend four consecutive group educational sessions on substance abuse.
- B. He will name activities that he would most likely be involved in posttreatment.
- C. He will meet with his family in counseling sessions and discuss his feelings.
- D. He will be able to deal with his feelings through participation in group therapy sessions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This expected outcome is specific as related to attendance, but not specific as related to outcome criteria. Stating activities does not guarantee involvement. This goal may help the recovery process, but post counseling behavior is not addressed. This statement best describes the expected outcome. The client will be attending group therapy sessions and through them he will deal with his feelings.
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A client is admitted to the labor unit. On vaginal examination, the presenting part in a cephalic presentation was at station plus two. Station +2 means that the:
- A. Presenting part is 2 cm above the level of the ischial spines
- B. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines
- C. Presenting part is 2 cm below the level of the ischial spines
- D. Biparietal diameter is 5 cm above the ischial spines
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Station +2 means the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines, indicating descent in the pelvis.
A 42-year-old client presents with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. She has become increasingly restless and verbally argumentative, and her speech has become pressured. She is exhibiting signs of:
- A. Depression
- B. Agitation
- C. Psychotic ideation
- D. Anhedonia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Signs of depression would include withdrawal, sadness, morbid thoughts, insomnia, early awakening, etc. These clinical features are classic signs of agitation. Psychotic ideation includes delusional thoughts, bizarre behavior, disorganized thinking, etc. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease. Which laboratory value is most likely to be elevated?
- A. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
- B. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- C. Estriol
- D. Progesterone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gestational trophoblastic disease (e.g. molar pregnancy) causes markedly elevated hCG levels due to abnormal trophoblastic tissue growth. AFP estriol and progesterone are not typically elevated in this condition.
The nurse working in a prenatal clinic needs to be alert to the cardinal signs and symptoms of PIH because:
- A. Immediate treatment of mild PIH includes the administration of a variety of medications
- B. Psychological counseling is indicated to reduce the emotional stress causing the blood pressure elevation
- C. Self-discipline is required to control caloric intake throughout the pregnancy
- D. The client may not recognize the early symptoms of PIH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mild PIH is not treated with medications. Emotional stress is not the cause of blood pressure elevation in PIH. Excessive caloric intake is not the cause of weight gain in PIH. The client most frequently is not aware of the signs and symptoms in mild PIH.
The client is admitted with a diagnosis of postpartum endometritis. Which symptom is most characteristic?
- A. Foul-smelling lochia
- B. Painless vaginal bleeding
- C. Fetal distress
- D. Maternal hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postpartum endometritis causes foul-smelling lochia due to uterine infection. Painless bleeding suggests other causes fetal distress is irrelevant postpartum and hypotension occurs only in severe cases.
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