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A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric unit of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his
- A. early childhood experiences involving authority issues.
- B. anger about being hospitalized.
- C. low self-esteem.
- D. phobic fear of food.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Psychotic clients often experience delusions due to difficulties with trust and low self-esteem (C). In this case, the client's belief that someone is trying to poison him is likely a manifestation of his underlying issues with trust and self-worth. Building trust and promoting positive self-esteem are essential in caring for such clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because delusions are not primarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues, anger about hospitalization, or phobic fear of food. These factors do not directly contribute to the development of delusions in psychotic clients.
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An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
- B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
- C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
- D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.
A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
- B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
- C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
- D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.
A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?
- A. Reassure the client that she will not be abandoned.
- B. Set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently.
- C. Encourage the client to talk about her fears.
- D. Rotate the nursing staff assigned to the client frequently.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder expressing fear of abandonment is to set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently. This approach helps establish boundaries and provides a sense of security for the client. Choice A may provide temporary reassurance but does not address the core issue or help the client develop coping strategies. Choice C is important but should be accompanied by setting limits to address the underlying fear of abandonment. Choice D of rotating staff frequently can exacerbate the client's fear of abandonment by reinforcing the idea of being left.
The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states 'I don't need to be here,' and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?
- A. Insight and judgment.
- B. Mood and affect.
- C. Remote memory.
- D. Level of concentration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insight and judgment. The client's statements indicate her lack of insight into her need for hospitalization ('I don't need to be here') and the presence of a delusion (believing that the TV talks to her). These statements reflect the client's insight into her condition and judgment. This information is crucial for assessing the client's understanding of her situation and decision-making capacity. Choice B, Mood and affect, focuses on the client's emotional state rather than her insight and judgment. Choice C, Remote memory, pertains to the ability to recall past events, which is not the primary focus of the client's statements. Choice D, Level of concentration, is not directly related to the client's statements about her need for hospitalization and the delusional belief about the TV.
A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
- C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
- D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.