A 37-week gravid client states that she noticed a 'white liquid' leaking from her breasts during a recent shower.
- A. Advise the woman that she may have a galactocele.
- B. Encourage the woman to pump her breasts to stimulate an adequate milk supply.
- C. Assess the liquid because a breast discharge is diagnostic of a mammary infection.
- D. Reassure the mother that this is normal in the third trimester.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the third trimester, colostrum production can cause a white liquid to leak from the breasts. This is a normal physiological response as the body prepares for breastfeeding.
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Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action for a patient who has been administered an epidural block and is now experiencing hypotension?
- A. Administer a bolus of IV fluids
- B. Place the patient in a Trendelenburg position
- C. Administer oxygen via mask
- D. Raise the head of the bed slightly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bolus of IV fluids. Hypotension after an epidural block is often due to vasodilation caused by the block. Administering IV fluids can help increase blood volume and improve blood pressure. This action is crucial in maintaining perfusion to vital organs.
Choice B: Placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position can potentially worsen hypotension by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to further vasodilation and reduced blood pressure.
Choice C: Administering oxygen via mask may be important in some situations but is not the primary intervention for hypotension caused by epidural block.
Choice D: Raising the head of the bed slightly is not the best option for treating hypotension as it does not address the underlying cause of vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
A woman missed her menstrual period 1 week ago and has come to the doctor’s office for a pregnancy test. Which placental hormone is measured in pregnancy tests?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Estrogen
- C. Human chorionic gonadotropin
- D. Human placental lactogen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the basis for most pregnancy tests. It is detectable in maternal blood as soon as implantation occurs, usually 7 to 9 days after fertilization.
A couple is preparing to interview obstetric primary care providers to determine who they will go to for care during their pregnancy and delivery.
- A. Take a tour of hospital delivery areas.
- B. Develop a preliminary birth plan.
- C. Make appointments with three or four obstetric care providers.
- D. Search the Internet for the malpractice histories of the providers.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Developing a preliminary birth plan helps couples clarify their preferences and priorities, facilitating better communication with potential providers.
What is the priority intervention for a laboring person with a suspected uterine rupture?
- A. prepare for an emergency cesarean section
- B. perform uterine massage
- C. apply pressure to the abdomen
- D. monitor the fetal heart rate continuously
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: perform uterine massage. This intervention aims to prevent excessive bleeding and stabilize the uterus. Uterine massage helps to maintain uterine tone, which is crucial in managing uterine rupture. This intervention can help reduce the risk of maternal hemorrhage and improve fetal oxygenation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Emergency cesarean section may be necessary but is not the priority as immediate measures to control bleeding and maintain uterine tone are crucial.
C: Applying pressure to the abdomen is not recommended as it can further exacerbate uterine rupture and increase the risk of complications.
D: Continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate is important but not the priority in managing uterine rupture, which requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
A patient in labor is experiencing vaginal bleeding with no pain. What is the most likely cause?
- A. Placental abruption
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Uterine rupture
- D. Cervical laceration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placenta previa. In placenta previa, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding. Placental abruption (choice A) presents with painful bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice C) typically causes severe abdominal pain. Cervical laceration (choice D) usually occurs during delivery and is not typically associated with painless bleeding during labor. Placenta previa is the most likely cause in this scenario due to painless bleeding and the absence of contractions.