Nokea
A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?
- A. Anterior-posterior x-ray
- B. Ultrasound
- C. Lumbar puncture
- D. MRI
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: MRI. MRI is the most appropriate test for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor as it provides detailed images of soft tissues, including the spinal cord and surrounding structures. It can accurately identify the location, size, and extent of the tumor. Anterior-posterior x-ray (A) is not as detailed and may not clearly show soft tissue abnormalities. Ultrasound (B) is not typically used for imaging the spinal cord and may not provide sufficient information. Lumbar puncture (C) is used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not helpful for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor.
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A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bedpan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse will assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement?
- A. Preparing to administer a barium enema
- B. Withholding narcotic pain medication
- C. Administering laxatives to the patient
- D. Raising the head of the bed
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Option D is correct because raising the head of the bed promotes a more natural position for defecation, allowing gravity to assist. This position helps align the rectum and anal canal, making it easier for the patient to have a bowel movement. Administering laxatives (Option C) may help, but adjusting the bed position is a non-invasive and more immediate intervention. Withholding pain medication (Option B) could lead to unnecessary discomfort for the patient. Administering a barium enema (Option A) is not indicated for addressing difficulty with defecation.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrhea for the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the
nurse expect?
- A. Distended abdomen
- B. Decreased skin turgor
- C. Increased energy levels
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss, causing dehydration and decreased skin turgor. This indicates the patient's hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more common in conditions like bowel obstruction, not necessarily in diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely due to the patient's weakened state from dehydration. D: Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of AIDS. In the morning, the patient tells the nurse that he experienced night sweats and recently coughed up some blood. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
- A. Assess the patient for additional signs and symptoms of Kaposis sarcoma.
- B. Review the patients most recent viral load and CD4+ count.
- C. Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician.
- D. Perform oral suctioning to reduce the patients risk for aspiration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician. This is the most appropriate action because the patient is exhibiting symptoms that could be indicative of a potentially infectious respiratory condition, such as tuberculosis or pneumonia. Placing the patient on respiratory isolation helps prevent the spread of infection to others and protects healthcare workers. Informing the physician promptly allows for further evaluation and appropriate treatment.
Choice A is incorrect as Kaposi's sarcoma typically presents with skin lesions rather than respiratory symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as reviewing viral load and CD4+ count would not address the immediate concern of respiratory symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as oral suctioning is not the appropriate intervention for night sweats and coughing up blood.
The nurse in a pediatric ICU is caring for a child who is dying of sickle cell anemia. The childs mother has been unable to eat or sleep and can talk only about her impending loss and the guilt she feels about the childs pain and suffering. What intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Allowing the patient to express her feelings without judging her
- B. Helping the patient to understand the phases of the grieving process
- C. Reassuring the patient that the childs death is not her fault
- D. Arranging for genetic counseling to inform the patient of her chances of having another child with the disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Allowing the patient to express her feelings without judging her. This intervention has the highest priority as it focuses on providing emotional support and creating a safe space for the mother to express her emotions without feeling judged. In this situation, the mother is experiencing intense guilt and grief, and allowing her to talk about her feelings can help her process her emotions and cope with the impending loss. By listening actively and without judgment, the nurse can demonstrate empathy and compassion, which are crucial in supporting the mother through this difficult time.
Summary:
B: Helping the patient to understand the phases of the grieving process may be helpful, but it is not the highest priority at this moment.
C: Reassuring the patient that the child's death is not her fault is important, but the priority is to address the mother's emotional needs first.
D: Arranging for genetic counseling is not the highest priority at this time as the immediate focus should be on providing emotional support to the mother
A nurse is working with a patient who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. The nurse should recognize that a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS at the point when the CD4+ T- lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold?
- A. 75 cells/mm3 of blood
- B. 200 cells/mm3 of blood
- C. 325 cells/mm3 of blood
- D. 450 cells/mm3 of blood
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (200 cells/mm3 of blood) because a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS when their CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3. This threshold signifies a significant decrease in the immune system's ability to fight off infections and indicates progression to AIDS.
Choice A (75 cells/mm3 of blood) is incorrect because this level is extremely low and would indicate severe immunosuppression, likely leading to AIDS much earlier than anticipated.
Choice C (325 cells/mm3 of blood) and D (450 cells/mm3 of blood) are also incorrect as these levels are within the normal range or slightly lower, which would not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.