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A 38-year-old male client collapsed at his outside construction job in Texas in July. His admitting vital signs to ICU are, BP 82/70, heart rate 140 beats/minute, urine output 10 ml/hr, skin cool to the touch. Pulmonary artery (PA) pressures are, PAWP 1, PAP 8/2, RAP -1, SVR 1600. What nursing action has the highest priority?
- A. Apply a hypothermia unit to stabilize core temperature.
- B. Increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr.
- C. Call the hospital chaplain to counsel the family.
- D. Draw blood cultures x3 to detect infection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr. The client's vital signs indicate hypotension, tachycardia, decreased urine output, and cool skin, suggesting hypovolemic shock. Increasing IV fluid rate will help to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion to vital organs. This is the highest priority as it addresses the immediate physiological need for circulatory support.
Choice A is incorrect because hypothermia is not indicated based on the client's presentation. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the client's urgent physiological needs. Choice D is incorrect as drawing blood cultures, while important, is not the most immediate priority in this situation.
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The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?
- A. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
- B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions.
- C. Make sure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
- D. Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Rationale: RSV is highly contagious and can spread through respiratory droplets, making it important to prevent exposing other children to the virus. Even without direct oral contact, the virus can be transmitted. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid putting other children at risk of contracting RSV.
Summary of other choices:
A: Wearing a mask may not be practical for an infant and may not provide sufficient protection against RSV transmission.
B: RSV can still be contagious for several days after symptoms appear, so the child may still be able to spread the virus.
C: While avoiding infants under 6 months can be a good precaution, all children should be protected from exposure to RSV due to its high contagiousness.
Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?
- A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
- B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
- C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
- D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the OB nurse's background in obstetrics makes them most suitable to care for a post-operative patient with an IV. This assignment aligns with the nurse's skill set and ensures safe and competent care. Choices B, C, and D involve medical-surgical conditions that may require specialized knowledge and skills beyond the OB nurse's expertise, potentially compromising patient care. Assigning the OB nurse to care for a post-operative patient with an IV is the most appropriate choice given the circumstances.
A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours. In a patient with urinary sepsis, timely administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications. Piperacillin/tazobactam is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly involved in sepsis. Administering it first ensures prompt initiation of treatment. Other choices (B) Vancomycin, (C) Pantoprazole, and (D) Enoxaparin are important medications but are not as time-sensitive in this scenario. Vancomycin and Enoxaparin have longer administration times, and Pantoprazole is a maintenance medication that is not urgent in the acute management of sepsis.
When assessing a client reporting severe pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, which sign would most likely indicate appendicitis?
- A. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point.
- B. Positive Murphy's sign.
- C. Rovsing's sign.
- D. Cullen's sign.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point. McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant and is a classic sign of appendicitis. Rebound tenderness at this point indicates inflammation in the peritoneum, suggesting appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are not specific to appendicitis. Positive Murphy's sign is related to cholecystitis, Rovsing's sign is seen in acute appendicitis but is not as specific as rebound tenderness at McBurney's point, and Cullen's sign is associated with acute pancreatitis.
A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?
- A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
- B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
- C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
- D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because eating a snack when blood glucose is 70 mg/dl helps prevent hypoglycemia. Testing blood glucose once a week (A) is not frequent enough for proper management. Taking extra insulin when shaky (C) can lead to hypoglycemia. Skipping meals (D) can cause unstable blood glucose levels.