A 38-year-old woman, mother of two, has a mastectomy for breast cancer. When she returns to the physician’s office a month later for a routine check-up, the nurse asks the client how she has been. Which of the following responses, if made by the client to the nurse, indicates that the client is experiencing a normal reaction to the surgery?
- A. I have been helping my family deal with their feelings about the surgery.
- B. I have been having difficulty coping with the surgery and cry frequently.
- C. I have been unable to leave the house or talk to my friends about the surgery.
- D. I am doing just great since the surgery and have gone back to work at my job.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: normal reaction one month later
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The nurse is caring for an 11-year-old patient being treated for a fractured right femur with balanced suspension traction with a Thomas splint and Pearson attachment. The nurse notes that the patient’s left leg is externally rotated. The nurse should
- A. place a trochanter roll on the outer aspect of the thigh.
- B. perform resistive range of motion of the left leg.
- C. adduct and internally rotate the left leg.
- D. instruct the patient to maintain the left leg in a neutral position.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: holds hip in neutral position and leg in normal alignment, entire weight of leg cannot be held by props placed below knee
Which action is contraindicated in the client with epiglottis?
- A. Ambulation
- B. Oral airway assessment using a tongue blade
- C. Placing a blood pressure cuff on the arm
- D. Checking the deep tendon reflexes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using a tongue blade can trigger airway obstruction in epiglottitis, making it contraindicated.
Which of the following findings is associated with right-sided heart failure?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Nocturnal polyuria
- C. Daytime oliguria
- D. Crackles in the lungs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nocturnal polyuria is a classic sign of right-sided heart failure due to fluid redistribution when lying down.
A client with benign prostatic hypertrophy has been started on Proscar (finasteride). The nurse's discharge teaching should include:
- A. Telling the client's wife not to touch the tablets
- B. Explaining that the medication should be taken with meals
- C. Telling the client that symptoms will improve in 1-2 weeks
- D. Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime, to prevent nocturia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Finasteride tablets should not be handled by pregnant women due to the risk of fetal harm. This is a critical teaching point for safety.
The nurse is preparing the client for surgery. The pre-op medication includes atropine sulfate 0.4 mg, meperidine (Demerol HCl) 50 mg, and promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan) 25 mg IM. Which action should the nurse do first?
- A. make sure the surgical permit is signed
- B. ask the client to go to the bathroom
- C. explain the purpose of the medication to the client
- D. ask family members to exit the room
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ensuring the surgical permit is signed is the priority to confirm informed consent before administering preoperative medications.
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