Nokea
A 4-year-old client is unable to go to sleep at night in the hospital. Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep for the child?
- A. turning out the room light and closing the door
- B. tiring the child during the evening with quiet activities
- C. identifying the child's home bedtime rituals and following them
- D. encouraging visitation by friends during the evening
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a 4-year-old client struggling to sleep in the hospital, it is essential to identify and replicate their home bedtime rituals. This familiarity can provide comfort and promote better sleep. Turning out the room light and closing the door (Choice A) might increase the child's fear by plunging the room into darkness, making it an incorrect choice. Tiring the child with quiet activities (Choice B) is incorrect as it may stimulate rather than calm the child. Encouraging visitation by friends (Choice D) can lead to increased excitement, hindering the child's ability to fall asleep instead of promoting a restful environment.
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While assisting with data collection, the nurse asks the client to close their jaws tightly. Subsequently, the nurse tries to open the closed jaws. In this technique, the nurse is assessing the motor function of which nerve?
- A. Trochlear nerve
- B. Abducens nerve
- C. Trigeminal nerve
- D. Oculomotor nerve
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trigeminal nerve. To test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), the nurse assesses the muscles of mastication by asking the client to clench their teeth. By trying to separate the client's jaws, the nurse evaluates the strength of the temporal and masseter muscles innervated by the trigeminal nerve. This technique helps assess if the trigeminal nerve is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they relate to other cranial nerves that are not involved in the specific motor function being tested in this scenario. These nerves are usually assessed through different examinations such as assessing the pupils and extraocular movements, which are not part of the jaw clenching and opening technique described in the question.
If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?
- A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
- B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
- C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
- D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.
What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?
- A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
- B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
- C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
- D. Emphasize client education.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.
A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:
- A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
- B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
- C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
- D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.
If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?
- A. retrograde ejaculation
- B. decreased plasma testosterone
- C. hypertrophy of testicles
- D. state of euphoria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.