Nokea
A 40-year-old female farmworker has been diagnosed with brucellosis and administered causal chemotherapy. What group of drugs will be used for this purpose?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Donor immunoglobulin
- C. Inactivated therapeutic vaccine
- D. Antitoxic serum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotic. Brucellosis is a bacterial infection, and antibiotics are the primary treatment to target and eliminate the bacteria causing the disease. Antibiotics such as doxycycline and rifampin are commonly used for brucellosis treatment. Donor immunoglobulin (B) is not used to treat brucellosis as it is not caused by a deficiency in antibodies. Inactivated therapeutic vaccine (C) is used for prevention, not for treating active infections. Antitoxic serum (D) is used to neutralize toxins produced by bacteria, not to directly kill the bacteria themselves in cases like brucellosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
Shigella sonnei can escape phagocytic clearance by which mechanism?
- A. Lysis of phagosome and replication in cytoplasm
- B. capsule-mediated inhibition of phagocytosis
- C. Inhibition of phagosome/lysosome fusion
- D. inhibition of opsonization mediated by protein A
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Shigella sonnei escapes phagocytic clearance by lysing the phagosome and replicating in the cytoplasm. This allows the bacterium to avoid being destroyed by the acidic environment and enzymes in the phagolysosome. Choice B is incorrect as Shigella does not have a capsule. Choice C is incorrect because Shigella actually induces phagosome-lysosome fusion to facilitate its escape. Choice D is incorrect as protein A is a component of Staphylococcus aureus, not Shigella sonnei.
A patient with diarrhea had fecal analysis revealing small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum. These bacteria do not form spores or capsules and thrive in alkaline conditions. What is the causative agent?
- A. Vibrio cholerae
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Salmonella
- D. Shigella
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum point towards a motile bacterium.
Step 2: The absence of spores or capsules and preference for alkaline conditions further narrows down the possibilities.
Step 3: Vibrio cholerae fits all criteria as it is a curved, motile, Gram-negative bacillus that thrives in alkaline environments.
Summary: Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobe, Salmonella and Shigella are non-flagellated, and all of them can form capsules or spores, unlike Vibrio cholerae.
A patient with pneumonia had a sputum culture revealing Gram-positive diplococci. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. Neisseria meningitidis
- D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive diplococci suggest a pneumococcal infection.
Step 2: Catalase-negative indicates Streptococcus.
Step 3: Alpha-hemolysis matches S. pneumoniae's characteristics.
Therefore, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is Gram-negative, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is not diplococci or alpha-hemolytic.
A 33 year old patient was delivered to the infectious diseases department on the 7-th day of disease. He complained about great weakness, high temperature, pain in the lumbar area and leg muscles, icteritiousness, dark color of urine, headache. The acute disease started with chill, body temperature rise up to 40oC, headache, pain in the lumbar area and sural muscles. Icterus turned up on the 4th day, nasal and scleral haemorrhages came on the 5th day. Fever has lasted for 6 days. Diuresis - 200 ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Leptospirosis
- B. Typhoid fever
- C. Virus A hepatitis
- D. Sepsis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Leptospirosis. The symptoms described align with the classic presentation of Leptospirosis, such as fever, muscle pain, headache, jaundice, and hemorrhages. The initial symptoms of chills, high fever, and muscle pain followed by jaundice and hemorrhages are characteristic of Leptospirosis. The presence of dark urine and low diuresis also point towards kidney involvement, which is common in Leptospirosis due to renal failure. Additionally, the patient's history of potential exposure to contaminated water or soil supports the diagnosis, as Leptospirosis is commonly transmitted through contact with infected animal urine.
Summary of other choices:
- Typhoid fever typically presents with sustained fever, abdominal pain, and constipation, not matching the symptoms described.
- Virus A hepatitis usually presents with jaundice, but other symptoms such as muscle pain and hemorrhages are not typical.
- Sepsis is a systemic response
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing pneumonia?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacteria is known for causing pneumonia due to its ability to infect the lungs and cause inflammation leading to pneumonia symptoms. It is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) causes tuberculosis, not pneumonia. Escherichia coli (C) is associated with urinary tract infections and gastrointestinal infections, not pneumonia. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is known to cause infections in immunocompromised individuals but is not a common cause of pneumonia.