Health Care of the Older Adult NCLEX Related

Review Health Care of the Older Adult NCLEX related questions and content

A 40-year-old female is losing most of her hair as a result of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements best explains chemotherapy-induced alopecia?

  • A. The new growth of hair will be gray.
  • B. The hair loss is temporary.
  • C. A new hair growth will always be the same texture and color as it was before chemotherapy.
  • D. The client should avoid use of wigs when possible.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Chemotherapy-induced alopecia is temporary, with hair typically regrowing within months after treatment ends, which is a reassuring and accurate explanation.