Pathophysiology Final Exam

Pathophysiology Final Exam Related

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A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

  • A. Clarithromycin
  • B. Pyrazinamide
  • C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
  • D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

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An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a sex hormone deficiency and has begun a course of treatment with testosterone. What change in the boy's health status would necessitate a stop to the course of treatment?

  • A. Excessive growth in height
  • B. Signs of puberty
  • C. Recurrent urinary tract infections
  • D. Increased blood pressure
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In an 8-year-old boy with a sex hormone deficiency being treated with testosterone, the appearance of signs of puberty would necessitate stopping the treatment. Testosterone therapy in this case aims to supplement the deficient sex hormones but should not trigger premature puberty. Excessive growth in height (choice A) is not a typical reason to stop testosterone therapy. Recurrent urinary tract infections (choice C) and increased blood pressure (choice D) are not directly related to testosterone therapy in this context.

A nurse caring for a patient with a diagnosis of lung cancer is aware that the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer is:

  • A. Alcohol consumption
  • B. Smoking
  • C. Poor diet
  • D. Environmental exposure
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer. Tobacco smoke contains numerous carcinogens that can damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer. Alcohol consumption (Choice A), poor diet (Choice C), and environmental exposure (Choice D) can contribute to overall health risks, but they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with the development of lung cancer.

What important information should the nurse provide about the risks associated with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with a history of breast cancer?

  • A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
  • B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
  • C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
  • D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients on tamoxifen should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; it may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, and it may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Which physiologic response is most likely to accompany activation of the parasympathetic nervous system?

  • A. Increased heart rate
  • B. Increased gastric motility
  • C. Pupil dilation
  • D. Sweating
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased gastric motility. The parasympathetic nervous system is known to promote rest and digest functions, which includes increasing gastric motility to aid in digestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are more characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate (Choice A), pupil dilation (Choice C), and sweating (Choice D) among other responses.

A client with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which process will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in a chemical synapse?

  • A. Two-way communication between neurons is permitted, in contrast to the one-way communication in electrical synapses.
  • B. Communication between a neuron and the single neuron it is connected with will be facilitated.
  • C. The neurotransmitter will cross gap junctions more readily.
  • D. More neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bond with postsynaptic receptors.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When serotonin levels increase, more neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bind with postsynaptic receptors, facilitating enhanced communication. Option A is incorrect because chemical synapses, unlike electrical synapses, are unidirectional. Option B is incorrect because neurotransmitters impact communication with multiple neurons, not just a single connected neuron. Option C is incorrect because neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft, not gap junctions.

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