Nokea
A 42-year-old female has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. The smear stained by Romanovsky- Giemsa's method has been found to include flagellated bacteria. What is the most likely microorganism that has been found by the doctor?
- A. Trichomonas vaginalis
- B. Leishmania donovani
- C. Trypanosoma gambiense
- D. Trihomonas hominis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan parasite commonly found in vaginal infections. The presence of flagellated bacteria in the vaginal discharge stained with Romanovsky-Giemsa method indicates a protozoan infection, ruling out bacterial or viral causes. Choices B, C, and D are not correct as Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness, and Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine, not typically associated with vaginal infections.
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The taxonomic resource for information on bacteria is __________.
- A. Gray's Anatomy
- B. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
- C. WHO Manual
- D. Darwin's Origin of Species
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. This manual is a comprehensive and authoritative resource specifically dedicated to bacterial taxonomy, classification, and identification. It provides detailed descriptions and classification schemes for bacteria, aiding in accurate identification and understanding of bacterial species. Gray's Anatomy (choice A) focuses on human anatomy, the WHO Manual (choice C) focuses on global health guidelines, and Darwin's Origin of Species (choice D) discusses evolution and natural selection, none of which are specialized taxonomic resources for bacteria.
What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae
- A. Agglutination
- B. Precipitation
- C. Western blot
- D. ELISA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.
A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Reiter's syndrome
- B. Rheumatic arthritis
- C. Gout
- D. Bechterew's disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.
A stool sample from a patient with persistent diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Entamoeba histolytica
- B. Balantidium coli
- C. Giardia lamblia
- D. Trichomonas hominis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is the only choice that matches the description of cysts with four nuclei, characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes amoebiasis, leading to symptoms like persistent diarrhea.
The other choices can be eliminated for the following reasons:
B: Balantidium coli - It is a ciliated protozoan that causes dysentery in humans but does not produce cysts with four nuclei.
C: Giardia lamblia - It is a flagellated protozoan that causes giardiasis, but it forms cysts with only two nuclei.
D: Trichomonas hominis - It is a flagellated protozoan found in the human intestine, but it does not produce cysts with four nuclei.
Therefore, based on the description of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample,
The growth phase in which bacteria adapt to the conditions of cultivation is called:
- A. Stationary phase
- B. Log phase
- C. Lag phase
- D. Death phase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lag phase. During the lag phase, bacteria adapt to the new environment before starting to grow and divide. This phase is characterized by a period of low growth as bacteria adjust their metabolism to the available nutrients. The stationary phase (A) is when growth rate equals death rate, the log phase (B) is rapid exponential growth, and the death phase (D) is when cells start to die due to nutrient depletion or accumulation of waste products. Thus, the lag phase is the initial phase where bacteria prepare for growth, making it the correct answer.