A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic?
- A. A referral for a mammogram
- B. Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE)
- C. A referral to a surgeon
- D. A referral to a support group
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A referral for a mammogram. Given the family history of breast cancer in the patient's father, the nurse should recommend a mammogram as a preventive measure due to increased risk. Mammograms are effective in detecting breast cancer early, especially in individuals with a family history. This can help in early diagnosis and timely intervention if needed.
B: Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) can be helpful, but in this case, a mammogram is a more definitive screening tool for high-risk individuals.
C: A referral to a surgeon is not necessary at this point as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of breast cancer.
D: Referral to a support group may be beneficial for emotional support, but the priority should be on proactive screening measures like a mammogram.
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A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?
- A. Oral temperature of 100F
- B. Tachypnea and restlessness
- C. Frequent loose stools
- D. Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachypnea and restlessness. This observation takes immediate priority as it indicates potential respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia in HIV patients. Tachypnea can be a sign of hypoxia, while restlessness may indicate increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Choice A: Oral temperature of 100F is not an immediate priority as it is within normal range and may not directly impact the patient's immediate condition.
Choice C: Frequent loose stools may suggest gastrointestinal issues but are not as urgent as respiratory distress in this scenario.
Choice D: Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday, while relevant in monitoring the patient's condition, does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
A patient has been admitted to the hospital numerous times. The nurse asks the patient to share a personal story about the care that has been received. Which interaction is the nurse using?
- A. Nonjudgmental
- B. Socializing
- C. Narrative
- D. SBAR
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Narrative. The nurse is using a narrative interaction by asking the patient to share a personal story. This helps the patient express their experiences, emotions, and perspectives, promoting a deeper understanding of their care needs. A: Nonjudgmental is incorrect as it focuses on avoiding biases. B: Socializing is incorrect as it implies casual conversation. D: SBAR is incorrect as it stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation, used for concise communication in healthcare settings.
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has a diagnosis of hereditary angioedema. When planning this patients care, what nursing diagnosis should be prioritized?
- A. Risk for Infection Related to Skin Sloughing
- B. Risk for Acute Pain Related to Loss of Skin Integrity
- C. Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Cutaneous Lesions
- D. Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange Related to Airway Obstruction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange Related to Airway Obstruction. This should be prioritized because hereditary angioedema can lead to swelling in the airway, potentially causing respiratory distress and compromising gas exchange. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate threat to the patient's respiratory function.
A: Risk for Infection Related to Skin Sloughing - While skin sloughing can occur with hereditary angioedema, it is not the priority over ensuring adequate gas exchange.
B: Risk for Acute Pain Related to Loss of Skin Integrity - Pain management is important, but addressing airway obstruction takes precedence due to the potential for respiratory compromise.
C: Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Cutaneous Lesions - Skin integrity issues may be present but do not pose as immediate a threat as airway obstruction.
The patient has just been started on an enteral feeding and has developed diarrhea after being on the feeding for 2 hours. What does the nurse suspect is themostlikely cause of the diarrhea?
- A. Antibiotic therapy
- B. Clostridium difficile
- C. Formula intolerance
- D. Bacterial contamination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Formula intolerance. When a patient develops diarrhea shortly after starting enteral feeding, formula intolerance is the most likely cause. This can occur due to the patient's inability to tolerate certain ingredients in the formula, leading to gastrointestinal upset. Antibiotics (choice A) and Clostridium difficile (choice B) typically take longer to cause diarrhea. Bacterial contamination (choice D) would usually result in more severe symptoms beyond just diarrhea. In this scenario, formula intolerance is the most logical explanation for the immediate onset of diarrhea after starting enteral feeding.
A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer?
- A. Use of oral contraceptives increases the risk of ovarian cancer.
- B. Most cases of ovarian cancer are attributed to tobacco use.
- C. Most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation.
- D. The majority of women who get ovarian cancer have a family history of the disease.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should inform the patient that most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. This is the correct answer because the exact cause of ovarian cancer is not well understood, and the majority of cases are not linked to specific risk factors.
Step 2: Choice A is incorrect because the use of oral contraceptives actually decreases the risk of ovarian cancer.
Step 3: Choice B is incorrect because tobacco use is not a major risk factor for ovarian cancer. It is primarily associated with lung and other types of cancer.
Step 4: Choice D is incorrect because while a family history of ovarian cancer can increase the risk, the majority of women diagnosed with ovarian cancer do not have a family history of the disease.