A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should
- A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
- B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
- C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
- D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are less likely to cause hypertension compared to combined oral contraceptives and may be preferred in women with cardiovascular risk factors.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nursing student having trouble moving her head from side to side is likely experiencing a problem with which type of neurons?
- A. General visceral efferent neurons
- B. Preganglionic neurons
- C. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
- D. Pharyngeal efferent neurons
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pharyngeal efferent neurons are involved in head movement, including side-to-side motions.
A 10-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting wheezing and difficulty breathing. History reveals that both of the child's parents suffer from allergies. Which of the following terms would be used to classify the child?
- A. Desensitized
- B. Atopic
- C. Hyperactive
- D. Autoimmune
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this case, the correct term to classify the child is 'Atopic.' Atopic individuals have a genetic predisposition to developing allergic conditions. 'Desensitized' refers to reduced sensitivity to an allergen, 'Hyperactive' relates to an exaggerated response, and 'Autoimmune' involves the immune system attacking its own cells, none of which accurately describe the child's classification based on the provided history.
When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will:
- A. Increase in size
- B. Decrease in length
- C. Increase in excitability
- D. Increase in number
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:
- A. This could result from playing in soil and then ingesting bacteria that is now attaching his motor neurons.
- B. No one really knows how this disease is formed. We just know that in time, he may grow out of it.
- C. This is a degenerative disorder that tends to be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
- D. This is a segmental demyelination disorder that affects all nerve roots and eventually all muscle groups as well.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons.
A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?
- A. Emotional stress
- B. Dietary indiscretion
- C. Physical overexertion
- D. Adequate rest and relaxation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Physical overexertion can contribute to an MS relapse, triggering symptoms to reappear.