ATI Pathophysiology Related

Review ATI Pathophysiology related questions and content

A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

  • A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
  • B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
  • C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
  • D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are less likely to cause hypertension compared to combined oral contraceptives and may be preferred in women with cardiovascular risk factors.