Nokea
A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?
- A. Suppression of beta2 receptors
- B. Suppression of airway mucus production
- C. Fortification of bones
- D. Suppression of candidiasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.
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A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?
- A. Asthma
- B. Renal failure
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Obesity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following client history findings requires the nurse to question the administration of this medication?
- A. Osteoporosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Peptic ulcer disease
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peptic ulcer disease. Methotrexate can exacerbate peptic ulcer disease, leading to serious complications. This finding warrants questioning the administration of methotrexate to prevent harm to the client. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with methotrexate use. Osteoporosis, hypertension, and immunosuppression are not typically reasons to question the administration of methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis.
A client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain has a decreased respiratory rate from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Naloxone
- C. Activated charcoal
- D. Aluminum hydroxide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer as it is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Hydromorphone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression at high doses. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes with opioids at receptor sites, reversing the effects of opioids like hydromorphone. Flumazenil (Choice A) is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for toxin ingestion to prevent absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and would not be the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following client histories is a contraindication to the administration of this medication?
- A. Recent surgery
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Bleeding disorder
- D. Uncontrolled hypertension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Uncontrolled hypertension. Clopidogrel should not be administered to clients with uncontrolled hypertension due to the increased risk of bleeding. Recent surgery, peptic ulcer disease, and bleeding disorders are not absolute contraindications for clopidogrel administration.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?
- A. Anorexia and weakness
- B. Hyperactivity and hunger
- C. Tachycardia and increased urination
- D. Polyphagia and polydipsia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia and weakness. These symptoms are early indicators of potential digitalis toxicity. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, which can be a sign of toxicity, and weakness can indicate an issue with digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity and hunger, tachycardia and increased urination, as well as polyphagia and polydipsia are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.