ATI Pathophysiology

ATI Pathophysiology Related

Review ATI Pathophysiology related questions and content

A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

  • A. sympathetic nerves.
  • B. parasympathetic nerves.
  • C. somatic nerves.
  • D. spinal reflexes.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

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On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?

  • A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
  • B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
  • C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
  • D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.

A patient has been prescribed an estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive. The nurse should emphasize that the risk of thrombophlebitis is most likely in patients who:

  • A. Are diabetic.
  • B. Smoke cigarettes.
  • C. Have a history of hypertension.
  • D. Are older than 40.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Smoking is a significant risk factor for thrombophlebitis, particularly when combined with estrogen-progestin contraceptives.

A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

  • A. Emotional stress
  • B. Dietary indiscretion
  • C. Physical overexertion
  • D. Adequate rest and relaxation
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Physical overexertion can contribute to an MS relapse, triggering symptoms to reappear.

A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

  • A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
  • B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
  • C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
  • D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are less likely to cause hypertension compared to combined oral contraceptives and may be preferred in women with cardiovascular risk factors.

A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?

  • A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
  • B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
  • C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
  • D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation.

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