Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank

Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Related

Review Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank related questions and content

A 45-year-old electrical engineer presents to your clinic, complaining of spots on his scrotum. He first noticed the spots several months ago, and they have gotten bigger. He denies any pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. He has had no fever, night sweats, weight gain, or weight loss. His past medical history consists of a vasectomy 10 years ago and mild obesity. He is on medication for hyperlipidemia. He denies any tobacco or illegal drug use and drinks alcohol socially. His mother has Alzheimer's disease and his father died of leukemia. On examination he appears relaxed and has unremarkable vital signs. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions on his penis. Visualization of his scrotum shows three yellow nodules 2-3 millimeters in diameter. During palpation they are firm and nontender. What abnormality of the male genitalia is this most likely to be?

  • A. Condylomata acuminata
  • B. Syphilitic chancre
  • C. Peyronie's disease
  • D. Epidermoid cysts
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Epidermoid cysts. These cysts typically present as firm, non-tender nodules on the scrotum, consistent with the patient's presentation. The history of gradual growth without associated symptoms supports this diagnosis. Additionally, the lack of pain with urination or sexual intercourse rules out sexually transmitted infections like condylomata acuminata (choice A) and syphilitic chancre (choice B). Peyronie's disease (choice C) involves penile curvature and fibrous plaques, not scrotal nodules. In summary, the patient's presentation, physical examination findings, and absence of specific symptoms point towards epidermoid cysts as the most likely diagnosis.

You may also like to solve these questions

When treating a patient with asthma who is experiencing acute wheezing, which medication should be given to relieve the symptoms?

  • A. Short acting bronchodilator
  • B. Long acting bronchodilator
  • C. Inhaled corticosteroid
  • D. Combination of methylxanthine and long acting bronchodilator
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Short acting bronchodilator. During an acute asthma attack, a short-acting bronchodilator (such as albuterol) is the preferred medication to relieve symptoms quickly by dilating the airways. This medication acts rapidly to open up the airways and provide immediate relief of wheezing and shortness of breath. Long-acting bronchodilators (choice B) are not recommended for acute symptom relief. Inhaled corticosteroids (choice C) are used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and not for immediate relief during an acute attack. Combining methylxanthine and long-acting bronchodilator (choice D) is not the standard treatment for acute wheezing in asthma.

When applying the SAMPLE mnemonic, which of the following statements from the patient would be classified under the letter 'M' for medications?

  • A. I have been taking aspirin for my headaches.
  • B. I am allergic to penicillin.
  • C. I recently had surgery on my knee.
  • D. I take Metformin for my diabetes.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The 'M' in the SAMPLE mnemonic stands for Medications, which focuses on the current and past medications the patient is taking.
Step 2: Choice D, "I take Metformin for my diabetes," directly provides information about a medication the patient is currently taking.
Step 3: This statement is relevant to the patient's medical history and helps in understanding their current health condition.
Summary: Choice D is correct as it specifically addresses the patient's medication (Metformin for diabetes), while the other choices provide information related to headaches (A), allergies (B), and surgical history (C), which do not fall under the 'M' category for medications.

An 81-year-old transgender female with a history of depression and hyperlipidemia presents to your clinic for routine care. She endorses a history of smoking, currently smoking 1 pack per day, and occasionally drinks a glass of wine, although she denies illicit drug use. She reports she takes atorvastatin 20 mg and subcutaneous estrogen therapy.

  • A. Counseling on starting aspirin
  • B. Counseling on alcohol cessation
  • C. Counseling on smoking cessation
  • D. Counseling on mammogram
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Counseling on smoking cessation. Smoking is a major risk factor for numerous health issues such as cardiovascular disease, respiratory problems, and cancer. Given the patient's age, history of smoking, and other risk factors like depression and hyperlipidemia, counseling on smoking cessation is crucial to improve her overall health and reduce the risk of future complications.

Choice A: Counseling on starting aspirin may be appropriate for some individuals based on their cardiovascular risk profile, but in this case, smoking cessation is a more urgent priority due to the direct impact of smoking on health.

Choice B: Counseling on alcohol cessation is important, but in this scenario, smoking cessation takes precedence due to the immediate and significant health risks associated with smoking.

Choice D: Counseling on mammogram is important for breast cancer screening, but addressing smoking cessation should be the primary focus given the patient's current health risks.

In summary, counseling on smoking cessation is the most critical intervention for this patient to improve her overall health

The assessment of a 72-year-old male causes the NP to have concerns that the pt. is a suicide risk. Risk factors for suicide in the elderly do NOT include

  • A. Chronic pain
  • B. Comorbid physical illness
  • C. Family history of suicide
  • D. Retirement
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Retirement. Retirement is not a known risk factor for suicide in the elderly. Here's the rationale:
1. Chronic pain (choice A) and comorbid physical illness (choice B) are risk factors as they can contribute to feelings of hopelessness and despair.
2. Family history of suicide (choice C) is a significant risk factor due to the genetic and environmental influences.
3. Retirement (choice D) does not directly increase the risk of suicide. In fact, many individuals find purpose and fulfillment in retirement.

Why is it important to inquire about the age of the first period when taking a sexual history from female patients?

  • A. It helps to determine the patient's current level of physical fitness.
  • B. It provides insight into the patient's reproductive health and potential risks.
  • C. It indicates the patient's dietary habits.
  • D. It is irrelevant to sexual health assessments.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because knowing the age of the first period can give insight into the patient's reproductive health and potential risks. Early or late onset of menstruation can be indicators of hormonal imbalances, reproductive disorders, or potential fertility issues. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall gynecological health and guiding appropriate interventions.

Choice A is incorrect because the age of the first period is not directly related to determining the patient's current level of physical fitness. Choice C is incorrect because the age of the first period does not indicate the patient's dietary habits. Choice D is incorrect because the age of the first period is relevant to sexual health assessments as it provides valuable information about the patient's reproductive health.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.