Nokea
A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Esophageal stricture
- B. Esophageal cancer
- C. Achalasia
- D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Esophageal cancer. This patient's symptoms of difficulty swallowing solids and liquids, along with unintentional weight loss, are concerning for a malignancy like esophageal cancer. The progressive nature of dysphagia and significant weight loss are red flags for cancer. Esophageal stricture (A) can cause dysphagia but typically presents with a history of chronic inflammation or injury. Achalasia (C) is characterized by dysfunction of the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to dysphagia, but it is less likely in this case due to the weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease (D) usually presents with epigastric pain and can cause weight loss, but it is less likely to cause progressive dysphagia.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?
- A. Proton-pump inhibitors and H2-blockers are equally effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
- B. Misoprostol is superior to an H2-blocker in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
- C. Sucralfate is not the drug of choice for prophylaxis in this patient.
- D. H. pylori infection can alter the risk for an NSAID-induced ulcer.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that helps protect the gastric mucosa by increasing mucus production. This mechanism of action makes it effective in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity.
Step 2: H2-blockers (Choice A) and PPIs are not as effective as misoprostol in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity.
Step 3: Sucralfate (Choice C) is not as effective as misoprostol in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity due to its different mechanism of action.
Step 4: H. pylori infection (Choice D) can increase the risk of NSAID-induced ulcers but is not directly related to the prophylactic treatment with misoprostol.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most important to ensure client safety?
- A. Check the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
- B. Verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.
- C. Administer the blood with normal saline.
- D. Monitor the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify the client's identity and blood compatibility. This step is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions due to compatibility issues. By confirming the client's identity and ensuring that the blood type matches, the healthcare provider minimizes the risk of adverse reactions such as hemolytic transfusion reactions. Checking vital signs (A) is important but ensuring blood compatibility takes precedence. Administering blood with normal saline (C) is incorrect as blood should be infused with the appropriate blood administration set. Monitoring the client for the first 15 minutes (D) is essential but verification of identity and blood compatibility is the primary step to prioritize safety.
A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
- B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
- C. Kayexalate retention enema.
- D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kayexalate retention enema. In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the priority is to lower potassium levels to prevent cardiac complications. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, promoting potassium excretion in the feces. This intervention helps reduce serum potassium levels quickly.
A: Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, unrelated to managing hyperkalemia.
B: Erythropoietin is a hormone used to stimulate red blood cell production, not indicated for reducing potassium levels.
D: Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant used for various conditions like autoimmune diseases, not for managing hyperkalemia.
In summary, the correct intervention is to administer a Kayexalate retention enema to lower serum potassium levels effectively in acute renal failure. Other options are not appropriate for managing hyperkalemia.
A 55-year-old man presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Primary biliary cirrhosis. This condition typically presents with fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, elevated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase levels. The imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct are classic for primary biliary cirrhosis. It is an autoimmune disease affecting the bile ducts.
Why other choices are incorrect:
B: Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with strictures and beading of bile ducts, not dilatation.
C: Gallstones usually cause common bile duct obstruction, not intrahepatic dilation.
D: Pancreatic cancer would typically present with different imaging findings and may involve the pancreatic duct, not just intrahepatic bile ducts.
The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
- D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The patient has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test, indicating exposure to the bacteria.
Step 2: Compliance with medical regimen suggests treatment for H. pylori infection.
Step 3: Persistence of symptoms after treatment indicates possible treatment failure.
Step 4: The urease breath test is ideal for detecting treatment failure as it directly measures the presence of H. pylori.
Step 5: Therefore, choice C is correct as it identifies the appropriate test for confirming eradication failure.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as reinfection risk is not the immediate concern.
- Choice B is incorrect as a positive serum IgG doesn't definitively indicate eradication failure.
- Choice D is incorrect as not all dyspepsia cases improve with H. pylori eradication.