A 45-year-old patient complains of fever up to 40oC, general weakness, headache and spasmodic contraction of muscles in the region of a shin wound. The patient got injured five days ago when tilling soil and didn't seek medical attention. What kind of wound infection can be suspected?
- A. Tetanus
- B. Anthrax
- C. Erysipelas
- D. Gram-positive
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The patient's symptoms align with tetanus infection, such as muscle spasms and fever.
Step 2: Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria found in soil.
Step 3: The wound from tilling soil provides an entry point for the bacteria.
Step 4: Delayed seeking medical attention increases the risk of tetanus development.
Step 5: Tetanus toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms.
Summary: Choice A is correct due to symptom alignment, bacterial source, wound type, delayed treatment, and specific neurological effects. Choices B, C, and D lack these specific connections to the given scenario.
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A Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium was isolated from a patient with cholera. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Vibrio cholerae
- B. Shigella dysenteriae
- C. Salmonella typhi
- D. Campylobacter jejuni
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This is because Vibrio cholerae is a Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium known to cause cholera. The characteristic shape and the association with cholera make it the most likely causative agent in this case.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Shigella dysenteriae - Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative bacterium that causes bacillary dysentery, not cholera.
C: Salmonella typhi - Salmonella typhi is a Gram-negative bacterium that causes typhoid fever, not cholera.
D: Campylobacter jejuni - Campylobacter jejuni is a Gram-negative bacterium that commonly causes foodborne gastroenteritis, not cholera.
Bacteria that thrive in high salt concentrations are called:
- A. acidophiles
- B. thermophiles
- C. halophiles
- D. mesophiles
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high salt concentrations due to their ability to regulate osmotic pressure. They have adapted mechanisms to survive in such extreme environments. Option A, acidophiles, thrive in acidic conditions, not high salt concentrations. Option B, thermophiles, thrive in high temperature environments. Option D, mesophiles, thrive in moderate temperature conditions, not necessarily high salt concentrations. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it specifically refers to bacteria that thrive in high salt concentrations.
A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Bubonic plague
- B. Acute purulent lymphadenitis
- C. Lymphogranulomatosis
- D. Anthrax
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.
Which bacteria are responsible for causing tuberculosis?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- C. Neisseria meningitidis
- D. Clostridium botulinum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis specifically targets the lungs, leading to respiratory symptoms and can spread to other parts of the body. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) is known for causing pneumonia, Neisseria meningitidis (C) causes meningitis, and Clostridium botulinum (D) causes botulism, not tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only bacterium among the choices that is associated with tuberculosis.
A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. On section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored, in the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthoma cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process:
- A. Syphilis
- B. Carbuncle
- C. Actinomycosis
- D. Leprosy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Actinomycosis. Actinomycosis is a chronic suppurative bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, which form sulfur granules in purulent masses surrounded by dense fibrous tissue. In this case, the presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthoma cells, and macrophages in the histological examination is characteristic of actinomycosis. The clinical presentation of skin redness, swelling, and abscess formation in the neck area also aligns with actinomycosis.
Choice A: Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, presenting with a painless chancre at the site of infection, not skin redness and swelling in the neck area.
Choice B: Carbuncle is a bacterial skin infection involving a group of hair follicles, typically on the back of the neck, not characterized by fungal druses or sulfur granules.
Choice D: Leprosy