Nokea
A 45-year-old woman has just undergone a radical hysterectomy for invasive cervical cancer. Prior to the surgery the physician explained to the patient that after the surgery a source of radiation would be placed near the tumor site to aid in reducing recurrence. What is the placement of the source of radiation called?
- A. Internal beam radiation
- B. Trachelectomy
- C. Brachytherapy
- D. External radiation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brachytherapy. Brachytherapy involves placing a radiation source near or directly into the tumor site. In this case, after the hysterectomy, the source of radiation is placed near the cervical cancer site to deliver targeted radiation therapy. This method helps reduce the risk of cancer recurrence by delivering high doses of radiation to the tumor while minimizing exposure to surrounding healthy tissues.
Choice A (Internal beam radiation) typically refers to a type of external radiation therapy where radiation beams are directed at the tumor from outside the body, not placed internally like brachytherapy.
Choice B (Trachelectomy) is a surgical procedure that involves removal of the cervix while preserving the uterus, not related to radiation therapy.
Choice D (External radiation) involves delivering radiation from outside the body using a machine, unlike brachytherapy where the radiation source is placed internally near the tumor site.
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Following a recent history of dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, a patient has received a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing health education related to self-care, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply.
- A. Use of condoms to prevent infecting others
- B. Appropriate use of antibiotics
- C. Taking measures to prevent pregnancy
- D. The need for a Pap smear every 3 months E) The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of condoms to prevent infecting others. This is important because PID is a sexually transmitted infection and using condoms can help prevent transmission to sexual partners. It is crucial to address this topic to ensure the patient understands the importance of safe sex practices.
The other choices are incorrect:
B: Appropriate use of antibiotics - While antibiotics are used to treat PID, this choice does not address self-care education for prevention.
C: Taking measures to prevent pregnancy - While important for overall health, preventing pregnancy is not directly related to self-care for PID.
D: The need for a Pap smear every 3 months - Pap smears are not directly related to PID management or prevention.
E: The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms - Weight loss is not a direct self-care measure for managing or preventing PID.
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
- A. direct Coombs test of twin A.
- B. direct Coombs test of twin B.
- C. indirect Coombs test of the mother.
- D. transcutaneous bilirubin level for both twins.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinsons disease several months ago recently began treatment with levodopa-carbidopa. The patient and his family are excited that he has experienced significant symptom relief. The nurse should be aware of what implication of the patients medication regimen?
- A. The patient is in a honeymoon period when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident.
- B. Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa do not peak until 6 to 9 months after the initiation of treatment.
- C. The patients temporary improvement in status is likely unrelated to levodopa-carbidopa.
- D. Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa often diminish after 1 or 2 years of treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient is in a honeymoon period when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident. This is because the initial response to levodopa-carbidopa in Parkinson's disease can be very positive, leading to significant symptom relief. However, over time, as the disease progresses and the body adjusts to the medication, adverse effects such as dyskinesias may become more prominent.
Choice B is incorrect because the benefits of levodopa-carbidopa can be seen relatively soon after initiation of treatment and do not necessarily take 6 to 9 months to peak. Choice C is incorrect as the temporary improvement is likely related to the medication, given the significant symptom relief experienced. Choice D is incorrect because while benefits may diminish over time, it is not necessarily after 1 or 2 years of treatment, and some patients may continue to benefit from the medication long-term.
A nurse is a member of an interdisciplinary teamthat uses critical pathways. According to the critical pathway, on day 2 of the hospital stay, the patient should be sitting in the chair. It is day 3, and the patient cannot sit in the chair. What should the nurse do?
- A. Add this data to the problem list.
- B. Focus chart using the DAR format.
- C. Document the variance in the patient’s record.
- D. Report a positive variance in the next interdisciplinary team meeting.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document the variance in the patient’s record. By documenting the variance in the patient's record, the nurse can provide a clear record of the deviation from the critical pathway. This documentation is essential for tracking the patient's progress accurately and identifying potential issues that may require intervention. It allows for proper communication among the interdisciplinary team and ensures that everyone is aware of the deviation.
Choice A is incorrect because adding data to the problem list may not provide a comprehensive record of the variance. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on charting using the DAR format does not address the deviation from the critical pathway. Choice D is incorrect because reporting a positive variance in the next team meeting may not accurately reflect the patient's actual progress and may lead to miscommunication within the team.
A clinic nurse is providing patient education prior to a patients scheduled palliative radiotherapy to her spine. At the completion of the patient teaching, the patient continues to ask the same questions that the nurse has already addressed. What is the plausible conclusion that the nurse should draw from this?
- A. The patient is not listening effectively.
- B. The patient is noncompliant with the plan of care.
- C. The patient may have a low intelligence quotient or a cognitive deficit.
- D. The patient has not achieved the desired learning outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The plausible conclusion the nurse should draw is that the patient has not achieved the desired learning outcomes.
1. The patient's repeated questions indicate a lack of understanding despite the nurse's teaching efforts.
2. This suggests that the patient has not grasped the information provided.
3. It does not necessarily mean the patient is not listening effectively, noncompliant, or has low intelligence.
4. The focus should be on reassessing the teaching methods and providing additional support to help the patient achieve the desired learning outcomes.