NCLEX Trainer Test 8 Related

Review NCLEX Trainer Test 8 related questions and content

A 48-year-old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for complaints of irregular menses.

  • A. What is the most probable cause of irregular menses in a 48-year-old woman with a history of regular periods?
  • B. Emotional trauma and stress.
  • C. The onset of menopause.
  • D. The presence of uterine fibroids.
  • E. A possible tubal pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Irregular menses in a 48-year-old woman is most likely due to menopause, as ovarian function declines between ages 45- Stress lacks supporting data, fibroids cause excessive bleeding, and tubal pregnancy typically presents with missed periods and pain.