Nokea
A 5-year-old boy is diagnosed in the Emergency Department as having measles, the first symptoms having started 2 days previously. He has a 2-year-old sister, who has received the recommended immunisation schedule. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
- A. Treat him symptomatically and send him home.
- B. Refer him to the infectious diseases hospital.
- C. Give him gamma globulin.
- D. Give gamma goblin to the sister.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Measles is managed symptomatically at home (A) unless complications arise. The vaccinated sister is protected, so hospitalization (B), gamma globulin (C, D), or premature reassurance (E) are unnecessary.
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A drug causes muscarinic receptor blockade. The nurse will assess the patient for
- A. Dry mouth.
- B. Gynecomastia.
- C. Pseudoparkinsonism.
- D. Orthostatic hypotension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Muscarinic receptor blockade inhibits the action of acetylcholine, leading to decreased salivary gland secretion and causing dry mouth. Gynecomastia (B) is associated with antiandrogen medications. Pseudoparkinsonism (C) is a side effect of antipsychotic medications that block dopamine receptors. Orthostatic hypotension (D) is a side effect of alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockade.
Which of the following behaviors is most consistent with bulimia nervosa?
- A. Severe food restriction and extreme weight loss.
- B. Binge eating followed by vomiting or use of laxatives.
- C. Excessive exercise and rigid dietary rules.
- D. Overeating and no attempts to control food intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Binge eating followed by vomiting or use of laxatives. This behavior is most consistent with bulimia nervosa as it involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors like self-induced vomiting or laxative use. This pattern of behavior is a key diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa.
A: Severe food restriction and extreme weight loss is more indicative of anorexia nervosa, not bulimia nervosa.
C: Excessive exercise and rigid dietary rules may be seen in various eating disorders, but it is not specific to bulimia nervosa.
D: Overeating without attempts to control food intake is more characteristic of binge eating disorder, not bulimia nervosa.
One bed is available on the eating disorders unit. Which patient should be admitted? The patient whose assessment findings show the weight dropped from:
- A. 150 to 102 pounds over a 4-month period.
- B. 120 to 90 pounds over a 3-month period.
- C. 130 to 100 pounds over a 2-month period.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the patient has experienced a significant weight drop from 150 to 102 pounds over a 4-month period. This represents a loss of 48 pounds over a relatively longer period, indicating a more severe and prolonged issue with weight loss. The other choices show weight drops of 30 pounds over 3 months (B) and 30 pounds over 2 months (C), which are also concerning but not as severe or long-lasting as the situation described in choice A. Choice D is incorrect as at least one patient should be admitted based on the information provided.
The nurse performs a functional assessment of a client upon admission to a home health agency. The purpose of this assessment is to determine the client's:
- A. Level of consciousness.
- B. Ability to perform activities of daily living.
- C. Degree of reasoning, judgment, and thought processes.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Functional assessment evaluates client's ability to perform ADLs.
2. Assessing ADLs helps determine client's independence level.
3. Independence in ADLs impacts care planning and interventions.
4. Level of consciousness (A) is related to neurological status, not functional ability.
5. Reasoning, judgment (C) are cognitive functions, not directly related to ADLs.
6. "None of the above" (D) excludes the correct purpose of functional assessment.
What is the primary concern when caring for a patient with bulimia nervosa who has been purging regularly?
- A. Managing the patient's weight gain.
- B. Assessing for complications related to electrolyte imbalances.
- C. Encouraging exercise to offset caloric intake.
- D. Promoting food restriction to control binge eating.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assessing for complications related to electrolyte imbalances. This is the primary concern when caring for a patient with bulimia nervosa who has been purging regularly because purging behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting or laxative abuse, can lead to severe electrolyte imbalances which can be life-threatening. Electrolyte imbalances can result in cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Managing weight gain (A), encouraging exercise (C), and promoting food restriction (D) are not appropriate approaches as they can exacerbate the patient's unhealthy behaviors and may worsen their condition. It is crucial to prioritize assessing and addressing electrolyte imbalances to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.