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A 50-year old male was brought toi the emergency department with a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. The client had a posterior pituitary tumor. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate for this client is:
- A. fluid volume excess
- B. incontinence, bowel
- C. fluid volume deficit
- D. diarrhea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: fluid volume deficit. In diabetes insipidus, there is an excessive amount of dilute urine excreted, leading to dehydration and fluid volume deficit. The posterior pituitary tumor causes a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys. As a result, the client experiences polyuria and polydipsia, leading to fluid volume deficit. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diabetes insipidus does not cause fluid volume excess, incontinence, or diarrhea. The key is to recognize the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus and its impact on fluid balance.
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An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
- A. Milk
- B. Orange juice
- C. Jello
- D. Ice cream
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids that do not contain any solid particles, providing easily digestible nutrients. Jello meets these criteria as it is a clear, gelatin-based dessert that melts into a liquid form at room temperature.
Rationale:
1. Jello is a clear liquid that does not contain solid particles, making it suitable for a clear liquid diet.
2. Milk (A) and ice cream (D) are not considered clear liquids as they contain fats and proteins, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet.
3. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and fibers, making it unsuitable for a clear liquid diet.
Summary:
Jello is the correct choice because it meets the criteria of being a clear liquid without solid particles. Milk, orange juice, and ice cream are not appropriate choices for a clear liquid diet due to their composition.
A client with colon cancer requires a permanent colostomy because of the tumor location. After surgery, the client must learn how to irrigate the colostomy. When irrigating, how far into the stoma should the client insert the lubricated catheter?
- A. 0.25” to 0.5”
- B. 2” to 4”
- C. 1” to 1.5”
- D. 5” to 7”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 1” to 1.5”. When irrigating a colostomy, the client should insert the lubricated catheter about 1” to 1.5” into the stoma. This depth allows for effective irrigation of the colon without causing discomfort or damage. Inserting the catheter too shallow (choice A) may not reach the colon, while inserting it too deep (choices B and D) can cause injury or perforation. Therefore, the optimal depth of 1” to 1.5” ensures proper irrigation while minimizing risks of complications.
A nurse is providing nursing care to patients after completing a care plan from nursing diagnoses. In which step of the nursing process is the nurse?
- A. Assessment
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Evaluation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In this step of the nursing process, the nurse is carrying out the care plan based on the identified nursing diagnoses. The nurse is actively providing care and interventions to meet the patient's needs.
Assessment (A) is the initial step where data is collected and analyzed. Planning (B) is where goals and interventions are determined based on assessment findings. Evaluation (D) is the final step where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of the care provided.
In this scenario, the nurse has already completed the care plan and is now executing the plan by implementing the interventions, making choice C the correct answer.
During an ophthalmic assessment, which of the ff are the nurses expected to observe carefully? Choose all that apply
- A. Level of central vision
- B. Pupil responses
- C. External eye appearance
- D. Eye movements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupil responses. During an ophthalmic assessment, observing pupil responses is crucial as it provides information on the function of the cranial nerves and potential neurological issues. Pupil size, shape, symmetry, and reaction to light are key indicators of eye health.
A: Level of central vision - While important, assessing the level of central vision is typically done by the ophthalmologist and not within the scope of the nurse's role in a routine assessment.
C: External eye appearance - Although external eye appearance can give some clues about eye health, it is not as direct and crucial as observing pupil responses.
D: Eye movements - While eye movements can provide information on ocular motor function, it is not as critical as assessing pupil responses in an ophthalmic assessment.
Which of the following complications can occur if a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed?
- A. A clot can enter the circulation.
- B. An air embolism can enter the circulation.
- C. A painful arterial spasm can occur.
- D. Fluid extravasation into surrounding tissue can occur.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A clot can enter the circulation. When a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed, the force can dislodge the clot, allowing it to enter the circulation and potentially leading to serious complications such as embolism.
Incorrect choices:
B: An air embolism can enter the circulation - In the context of a clotted cannula, air embolism is less likely compared to a clot entering the circulation.
C: A painful arterial spasm can occur - Arterial spasm is a potential complication but not directly related to flushing a clotted cannula.
D: Fluid extravasation into surrounding tissue can occur - Flushing a clotted cannula may not specifically lead to fluid extravasation, as it is more related to needle dislodgement or improper placement.