Nokea
A 50-year-old male who had frequent infections of his upper respiratory tract manifested with subcutaneous petechiae over his arms and legs. Investigations revealed low hemoglobin and a dry tap marrow. The most likely condition the patient is suffering from
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Megaloblastic anemia
- C. Hemolytic anemia
- D. Aplastic anemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aplastic anemia. This condition is characterized by pancytopenia, which includes low hemoglobin (anemia), low platelets (manifested as petechiae), and low white blood cells (frequent infections). Dry tap marrow is a classic finding in aplastic anemia due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) typically presents with microcytic hypochromic anemia without pancytopenia. Megaloblastic anemia (choice B) is characterized by macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils and is usually caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate. Hemolytic anemia (choice C) presents with anemia due to increased destruction of red blood cells, which does not explain the low platelets and white blood cells seen in this patient.
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A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What nursing assessment is best to assess for pallor in this client?
- A. Assess the conjunctiva of the eye.
- B. Have the patient open the hand widely.
- C. Look at the roof of the patient's mouth.
- D. Palpate for areas of mild swelling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the conjunctiva of the eye. Pallor is difficult to detect in dark-skinned individuals due to the lack of contrast. The conjunctiva of the eye provides a reliable area to assess for pallor as it is mucous membrane with blood vessels that can show changes in color. It is not accurate to assess for pallor by having the patient open the hand widely (B) as skin color on hands may vary. Looking at the roof of the mouth (C) may not accurately reflect pallor. Palpating for areas of mild swelling (D) does not assess for pallor, but rather for edema.
Which of the following is not true in thrombasthenia:
- A. prolonged bleeding time
- B. normal plat .Count
- C. plat .Aggregation defect
- D. prolonged clotting time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In thrombasthenia, there is a deficiency or dysfunction of integrin αIIbβ3 (GPIIb/IIIa), leading to impaired platelet aggregation. Prolonged bleeding time (A) is seen due to defective platelet function. Platelet count (B) is typically normal as thrombasthenia does not affect platelet production. Platelet aggregation defect (C) is a characteristic feature of thrombasthenia. Prolonged clotting time (D) is not associated with thrombasthenia as it primarily affects platelet function, not the coagulation cascade. Hence, choice D is the correct answer.
A patient has a bone marrow aspiration from the posterior iliac crest. Before the procedure, the patient's vital signs were: blood pressure 132/82 mm Hg and pulse 88 beats/min. One hour after the procedure, the blood pressure is 108/70 mm Hg and pulse is 96 beats/min. Which assessment is the least important for the patient at this time?
- A. Observe the puncture site.
- B. Check the patient's most recent complete blood count report.
- C. Ask the patient about feelings of lightheadedness or dizziness.
- D. Determine if the patient had any medications before the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check the patient's most recent complete blood count report. This assessment is the least important at this time because changes in vital signs post-bone marrow aspiration are more indicative of immediate complications such as bleeding or shock, which require prompt attention. Checking the complete blood count report would not provide immediate actionable information in this acute situation.
Summary:
A: Observing the puncture site is important for signs of bleeding or infection.
C: Asking the patient about lightheadedness or dizziness is crucial to assess for signs of hypovolemia or shock.
D: Determining if the patient had any medications before the procedure is essential to identify possible adverse drug interactions.
You are consulting on a 10-year-old male with severe persistent neutropenia, a history of recurrent infections, and warts. The rest of the peripheral blood count is normal. His mother also has neutropenia. Bone marrow examination shows a hypercellular marrow and retained myeloid cells with vacuolated cytoplasm. There are no abnormalities in the red cells or platelet precursors. Cytogenetics are 46XY. You start granulocyte colony stimulating factor therapy and the neutrophil count increases. A mutation in which of the following genes is most likely to have caused this familial inherited bone marrow failure syndrome?
- A. CXCR4
- B. ELANE
- C. GATA 2
- D. Mitochondrial DNA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CXCR4. In this case, the patient presents with severe neutropenia, recurrent infections, and warts, suggestive of WHIM syndrome, where CXCR4 mutations are often involved. CXCR4 plays a crucial role in immune cell trafficking and retention in the bone marrow. The hypercellular marrow and vacuolated myeloid cells are consistent with WHIM syndrome. The absence of abnormalities in red cells or platelet precursors rules out other syndromes. Mutations in ELANE are commonly associated with congenital neutropenia, not familial inherited bone marrow failure syndromes. GATA2 mutations are linked to familial myelodysplastic syndromes, not typically presenting with neutropenia and warts. Mitochondrial DNA mutations are more related to mitochondrial disorders, which usually manifest with multi-system involvement, not specific to bone marrow failure syndromes.
A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арrepitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
- A. Vestibular system
- B. Cerebral cortex
- C. Hypothalamus
- D. Vomiting center
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vomiting center. Ondansetron and aprepitant are antiemetic drugs that work by targeting the vomiting center in the brainstem. The vomiting center coordinates the vomiting reflex in response to various stimuli, including chemotherapy drugs like methotrexate. By inhibiting signaling in the vomiting center, these medications effectively prevent nausea and vomiting. The other choices (A: Vestibular system, B: Cerebral cortex, C: Hypothalamus) are not directly involved in the control of nausea and vomiting in response to chemotherapy.