A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.
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A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia
- B. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections
- C. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves
- D. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils. Teaching the patient to self-administer these injections can help increase the neutrophil count and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is incorrect as hospital admission may not be necessary if the patient can manage the condition at home. Option C is not ideal as discontinuing chemotherapy can impact the leukemia treatment. Option D is unrelated to managing neutropenia in this scenario.
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.
Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse¢â‚¬â„¢s teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?
- A. Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling.
- B. There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling.
- C. Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis.
- D. Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Which information shown in the table below about a patient who has just arrived in the emergency department is most urgent for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Platelet count
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. The platelet count is severely decreased, indicating a risk for spontaneous bleeding, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. While heart rate, abdominal pain, and white blood cell count are important, a severely decreased platelet count poses a more imminent threat to the patient's health and requires urgent communication to the healthcare provider. The nurse should prioritize addressing this potentially life-threatening issue to ensure prompt intervention and management.
Which menu choice indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching about recommended dietary choices for iron-deficiency anemia?
- A. Omelet and whole wheat toast
- B. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese
- C. Strawberry and banana fruit plate
- D. Cornmeal muffin and orange juice
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Cornmeal muffin and orange juice." Cornmeal muffin is a good source of iron, which is beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Orange juice is high in vitamin C, which aids in iron absorption. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically address the need for iron-rich foods, making them less suitable for someone with iron-deficiency anemia. Omelet and whole wheat toast (Choice A) may provide some iron but are not as focused on addressing the specific deficiency. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese (Choice B) and strawberry and banana fruit plate (Choice C) are more general fruit choices and do not emphasize iron-rich options.