Nokea
A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.
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A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of
- A. iron.
- B. folic acid.
- C. cobalamin (vitamin B12).
- D. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cobalamin (vitamin B12). Methotrexate can lead to a deficiency in cobalamin, resulting in megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, increasing the oral intake of cobalamin is essential to address this deficiency. Choice A, iron, is incorrect because megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate is not typically due to iron deficiency. Choice B, folic acid, is also incorrect as methotrexate does not directly cause folic acid deficiency. Choice D, ascorbic acid (vitamin C), is incorrect as it is not directly related to megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate; instead, cobalamin is the key vitamin that needs attention.
A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
- A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
- D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the
- A. Schilling test
- B. bilirubin level
- C. gastric analysis
- D. stool occult blood
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: bilirubin level. Jaundice, characterized by scleral jaundice, is caused by the elevation of bilirubin levels associated with red blood cell hemolysis. Checking the bilirubin level in the laboratory results will help assess the severity of jaundice in the patient. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Schilling test is used to assess vitamin B12 absorption, gastric analysis is used to evaluate gastric function, and stool occult blood is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which are not directly related to evaluating jaundice in a patient with hemolytic anemia.
A patient who has immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?
- A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
- B. Petechiae are present on the chest
- C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
- D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this scenario, the platelet count of 42,000/µL is not significantly low to warrant a platelet transfusion without active bleeding. Consulting with the healthcare provider is essential before giving the transfusion to ensure the appropriateness of the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the need for consulting before a platelet transfusion. Petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and may not necessarily contraindicate a platelet transfusion at this platelet count.
The health care provider's progress note for a patient states that the complete blood count (CBC) shows a 'shift to the left.' Which assessment finding will the nurse expect?
- A. Cool extremities
- B. Pallor and weakness
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Low oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. When a CBC shows a 'shift to the left,' it indicates elevated levels of immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils (bands), which is a sign of infection. In response to the infection, the body increases its temperature as part of the immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cool extremities, pallor and weakness, and low oxygen saturation are not typically associated with a 'shift to the left' in a CBC; they are more indicative of other conditions or issues.