Nokea
A 54-year-old has a diagnosis of breast cancer and is tearfully discussing her diagnosis with the nurse. The patient states, 'They tell me my cancer is malignant, while my coworker's breast tumor was benign. I just don't understand at all.' When preparing a response to this patient, the nurse should be cognizant of what characteristic that distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type?
- A. Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells
- B. Different proteins in the cell membrane
- C. Differing size of the cells
- D. Different molecular structure in the cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Malignant cells have different proteins in their membranes, such as tumor-specific antigens, which distinguish them from benign cells. Choice A is incorrect as cancer cells typically have a rapid and uncontrolled rate of mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the size of cells alone does not distinguish between malignant and benign cells. Choice D is incorrect as the molecular structure is not the primary characteristic that distinguishes between malignant and benign cells.
You may also like to solve these questions
Nurse Rose is caring for a client with cancer who has developed spinal cord compression. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Severe headache
- C. Back pain
- D. Loss of bladder control
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Back pain.' Back pain is a common symptom of spinal cord compression in cancer patients. This condition can cause localized or radiating back pain due to the compression of the spinal cord or nerves. While symptoms such as decreased deep tendon reflexes, severe headache, and loss of bladder control can occur in other conditions, back pain is specifically associated with spinal cord compression in cancer patients.
Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?
- A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
- B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
- D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?
- A. Age younger than 50 years
- B. History of colorectal polyps
- C. Family history of colorectal cancer
- D. Chronic inflammatory bowel disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age younger than 50 years. Colorectal cancer is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 50, so being younger than 50 is not typically considered a significant risk factor. Choice B, history of colorectal polyps, is a known risk factor as polyps can develop into cancer over time. Choice C, family history of colorectal cancer, is a well-established risk factor due to genetic predisposition. Choice D, chronic inflammatory bowel disease, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore, the incorrect choice is A as age younger than 50 years is not a common risk factor for colorectal cancer.
A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Isolate the client in a private room.
- B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
- C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
- D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.
Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of conization with a client who has microinvasive cervical cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client, indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. Infection
- B. Hemorrhage
- C. Cervical stenosis
- D. Ovarian perforation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Ovarian perforation.' Ovarian perforation is not a complication associated with conization; therefore, if the client identifies this as a potential complication, it indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Infection, hemorrhage, and cervical stenosis are potential complications of conization, so identifying them would not necessarily indicate a need for further teaching.