Nokea
A 55 year-old female asks a nurse the following, 'Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent progression of osteoporosis.' The nurse should state:
- A. Potassium
- B. Magnesium
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calcium is the most recognized osteoporosis treatment.
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A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan).
- B. labetalol (Normodyne).
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
- D. thiothixene (Navane).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is an opiate antagonist. It attaches to opiate receptors and blocks or reverses the action of narcotic analgesics. Choice 2 is incorrect because Labetalol is a beta blocker. Choice 3 is incorrect because Neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent. Choice 4 is incorrect because Thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent.
A nurse who is assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment should focus on which of the following aspects of the assessment?
- A. agility
- B. speed
- C. body composition
- D. risk factors
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A health assessment should focus on possible risk factors of the client.
A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25 year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. metabolic acidosis
- B. respiratory acidosis
- C. metabolic alkalosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is indicated by elevated pH and low carbon dioxide levels, with no compensation noted.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence by antagonizing opioid receptors. The other drugs do not address opioid overdose.
All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
- A. hot flashes.
- B. loss of reproductive ability.
- C. headaches.
- D. heart palpitations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The likelihood of fathering children does decrease with aging and decreased testosterone production, but men do not lose their ability to reproduce during the climacteric. Many men do not experience any physical symptoms of climacteric but some men do report hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations, among other symptoms.