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A 57-year old patient had a right lower lobectomy. The nurse should initiate this action when the patient arrives from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit:
- A. immediately administer pain relief
- B. keep patient in semi-fowler’s postion
- C. turn client every hour
- D. notify the family to report pateint’s condition
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: immediately administer pain relief. After a lobectomy, the patient may experience significant pain due to the surgical incision and chest tube insertion. Providing prompt pain relief is crucial to ensure the patient's comfort and prevent complications such as shallow breathing or limited mobility. This action will also aid in the patient's early recovery and promote better outcomes.
Choice B (keep patient in semi-fowler's position) is not the priority upon arrival from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit as pain management takes precedence. Choice C (turn client every hour) is important for preventing complications but is not the immediate action required upon arrival. Choice D (notify the family to report patient's condition) is important but not as urgent as providing pain relief to the patient.
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A client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
- A. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin
- B. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ
- C. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t found
- D. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dysplasia refers to the alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. Dysplasia is an abnormal growth or development of cells that can be a precursor to cancer. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be seen in Papanicolaou tests.
Choice A is incorrect because it describes an undifferentiated tumor, not dysplasia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes hyperplasia, not dysplasia. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to metaplasia, not dysplasia.
In summary, dysplasia is specifically about the abnormal changes in the appearance and organization of differentiated cells, making choice D the correct definition.
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s database for significant changes and discovers that the patient has not voided in over 8 hours. The patient’s kidney function lab results are abnormal, and the patient’s oral intake has significantly decreased since previous shifts. Which step of the nursing process should the nurse proceed to after this review?
- A. Diagnosis
- B. Planning NursingStoreRN
- C. Implementation
- D. Evaluation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diagnosis. After reviewing the patient's database and identifying concerning findings such as abnormal kidney function, lack of voiding, and decreased oral intake, the nurse needs to move to the diagnosis step of the nursing process. This involves analyzing the data collected to identify the patient's health problems and risks. In this case, the nurse needs to determine potential underlying issues related to the kidney function abnormalities and lack of voiding, and formulate a nursing diagnosis based on the findings.
Summary of other choices:
B: Planning comes after diagnosis and involves setting goals and creating a plan of care.
C: Implementation follows planning and involves carrying out the plan of care.
D: Evaluation is the final step of the nursing process where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.
When the nurse inspects a postoperative incision site for infection, which one of the following types of assessments is being performed?
- A. Complete
- B. Focused
- C. General
- D. Time-lapse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused. When a nurse inspects a postoperative incision site for infection, they are conducting a focused assessment. This type of assessment is specific to a particular issue or body system, in this case, the incision site. By focusing solely on the incision site, the nurse can thoroughly evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or discharge.
A: Complete assessments involve a comprehensive evaluation of all body systems and are not necessary for this specific situation.
C: General assessments are broad and not targeted towards a specific issue like infection at an incision site.
D: Time-lapse assessments involve comparing current findings to previous assessments over a period of time, which is not relevant to immediately identifying signs of infection.
In summary, the correct answer is focused because it allows for a detailed evaluation of the incision site specifically for signs of infection, unlike the other options that are either too broad or not relevant to the situation.
An adult is receiving total parenteral nutrition. The nurse knows which of the following assessments is essential?
- A. Evaluation of the peripheral venous site
- B. Confirmation that the tube is in the stomach
- C. Assessment of the GI tract, including bowel sounds
- D. Fluid and electrolyte monitoring
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fluid and electrolyte monitoring. In total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance is crucial to prevent complications like dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and overload. Regular assessment ensures the patient's stability and prevents potential adverse effects. Option A (Evaluation of the peripheral venous site) is important but not essential compared to maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. Option B (Confirmation that the tube is in the stomach) is irrelevant for a patient receiving TPN as it bypasses the GI tract. Option C (Assessment of the GI tract, including bowel sounds) is not necessary as TPN is given intravenously, bypassing the GI tract altogether.
A client who underwent litholapaxy surgery for removing bladder stones wants to know how long the urethral catheter needs to stay in place. Which of the ff is the correct response?
- A. The catheter should remain in place for 7 days
- B. The catheter should remain in place for 1-2 days
- C. The catheter should remain in place for 2-3 days
- D. The catheter should remain in place for 3-4 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The catheter should remain in place for 1-2 days. After litholapaxy surgery, the urethral catheter is typically removed within 1-2 days to prevent infection and promote healing. Keeping the catheter in place for too long can increase the risk of complications such as urinary tract infections. Options A, C, and D suggest longer durations which are not necessary and may lead to unnecessary discomfort and risks for the client. Therefore, the optimal timeframe for catheter removal post-litholapaxy surgery is within 1-2 days.