Nokea
A 59-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is in the clinic to "check up on his ulcerative colitis." He has been having "black stools" in the last 24 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?
- A. J.M. is a 59-year-old male here for "ulcerative colitis."
- B. J.M. came into the clinic complaining of black stools in the past 24 hours.
- C. J.M., a 59-year-old male, states he has ulcerative colitis and wants to have it checked up.
- D. J.M. is a 59-year-old male here for having "black stools" in the past 24 hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it accurately reflects the patient's chief complaint of having black stools in the last 24 hours, which is a concerning symptom suggestive of gastrointestinal bleeding. This documentation is specific and focused on the reason for seeking care, prioritizing the urgent nature of the symptom.
Choice A is incorrect because it does not mention the presenting symptom of black stools. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly state the reason for seeking care. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's self-diagnosis of ulcerative colitis rather than the current concerning symptom of black stools.
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Which of the following best describes the purpose of a functional assessment?
- A. It assesses how the individual is coping with life at home.
- B. It determines how children are meeting developmental milestones.
- C. It can identify any memory problems an individual may be experiencing.
- D. In the case of the older adult, it helps determine how that person is managing day-to-day activities.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a functional assessment specifically evaluates an older adult's ability to manage day-to-day activities, such as personal care, meal preparation, and mobility. This assessment helps identify any difficulties the individual may have in performing these essential tasks, which can then inform appropriate interventions or support services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the primary focus of a functional assessment, which is to evaluate an individual's functional abilities and independence in daily living tasks, particularly in the context of aging or disability.
What should be done for a client who is post-op and develops a fever within the first 48 hours?
- A. Administer antipyretics
- B. Monitor for signs of infection
- C. Administer fluids
- D. Perform an abdominal assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for signs of infection. Within the first 48 hours post-op, fever is often indicative of an infection. Monitoring for signs such as increased pain, redness, swelling, warmth at the surgical site, elevated white blood cell count, and changes in vital signs helps in early detection and prompt treatment of infections. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever but does not address the underlying cause. Administering fluids (choice C) is important for hydration but does not directly address the fever's cause. Performing an abdominal assessment (choice D) is not specific to addressing fever in a post-op client.
Which client should avoid foods high in potassium?
- A. a client receiving diuretic therapy
- B. a client with an ileostomy
- C. a client with metabolic alkalosis
- D. a client with renal disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with renal disease may have impaired kidney function, leading to difficulty in regulating potassium levels. High potassium intake can further burden the kidneys, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Clients on diuretic therapy (choice A) may actually need to monitor potassium levels due to potential electrolyte imbalances. Clients with an ileostomy (choice B) typically do not have issues with potassium absorption. Clients with metabolic alkalosis (choice C) may have potassium shifts but do not necessarily need to avoid high-potassium foods unless specifically advised by their healthcare provider.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of stroke. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
- A. Pulmonary embolism.
- B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- C. Hypertension.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. Monitoring for DVT is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism (A) is a potential complication of DVT but not the most direct concern. Hypertension (C) is a common condition but not directly linked to a history of stroke. Hyperglycemia (D) is more commonly associated with diabetes rather than stroke history. Monitoring for DVT in stroke patients is essential for early detection and intervention.
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate teaching for this patient?
- A. "You should increase your sodium intake to maintain good blood pressure."
- B. "It is important to increase physical activity and reduce stress."
- C. "Take your medications only when your blood pressure increases."
- D. "You should monitor your blood pressure every week."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because increasing physical activity and reducing stress are important lifestyle changes for managing chronic hypertension. Exercise helps lower blood pressure and stress reduction techniques can help control hypertension. Option A is incorrect as reducing sodium intake, not increasing it, is recommended. Option C is incorrect as medications for hypertension should be taken as prescribed, not only when blood pressure increases. Option D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure should be done regularly, but not necessarily every week.