A 66-year-old female who is usually meticulous about her appearance and dress arrives today for her 23rd day of radiation therapy and appears disheveled and emotionally labile, and her responses to the usual questions are a little inappropriate. Her heart rate is 124 bpm, her respirations are 32 breaths/minute, and her skin is cold and clammy. These findings would suggest that the nurse should further assess the client for which of the following conditions?
- A. Schizophrenia.
- B. Panic disorder.
- C. Depression.
- D. Delirium.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Disheveled appearance, emotional lability, inappropriate responses, and physical symptoms (tachycardia, tachypnea, clammy skin) suggest delirium, a medical emergency requiring urgent assessment.
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A client with toxic shock has been receiving ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin), 1 g every 12 hours. In addition to culture and sensitivity studies, which other laboratory findings does the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum creatinine.
- B. Spinal fluid analysis.
- C. Arterial blood gases.
- D. Serum osmolality.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ceftriaxone can cause nephrotoxicity, so the nurse should monitor serum creatinine to assess kidney function. Spinal fluid analysis, arterial blood gases, and serum osmolality are not routinely monitored for ceftriaxone therapy.
What would be the nurse's best response to the client's expressed feelings of isolation as a result of having hepatitis?
- A. Don't worry. It's normal to feel that way.'
- B. Your friends are probably afraid of contracting hepatitis from you.'
- C. I'm sure you're imagining that!'
- D. Tell me more about your feelings of isolation.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express feelings (D) fosters therapeutic communication and addresses emotional needs. Dismissing feelings (A, C) or assuming others' fears (B) is non-therapeutic and unhelpful.
A client with neutropenia has an absolute neutrophil count of 900. What is the client's risk of infection?
- A. Normal risk.
- B. Moderate risk.
- C. High risk.
- D. Extremely high risk.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 900 indicates moderate to severe neutropenia (ANC <1,000). This places the client at high risk for infection, as neutrophils are critical for fighting pathogens. Normal risk is ANC >1,500, and extremely high risk is ANC <200.
The nurse should be especially alert for signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity if serum levels indicate that the client has a:
- A. Low sodium level.
- B. High glucose level.
- C. High calcium level.
- D. Low potassium level.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low potassium (hypokalemia) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity by enhancing digoxin's binding to cardiac cells, leading to arrhythmias.
Before undergoing a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the client asks the nurse how the surgeon will close the incision made in the dura. The nurse should respond based on the knowledge that:
- A. Dissolvable sutures are used to close the dura.
- B. Nasal packing provides pressure until normal wound healing occurs.
- C. A patch is made with a piece of fascia.
- D. A synthetic mesh is placed to facilitate healing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fascial patch is commonly used to repair the dura during transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to prevent CSF leaks.
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