A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?
- A. Medicaid
- B. Medicare
- C. COBRA
- D. Private insurance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.
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During the admission assessment of a 3-year-old with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus, which assessment finding is evidence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Low blood pressure
- B. Increased respiratory rate
- C. Normal pupil reaction
- D. Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. This finding suggests that the optic nerve is being compressed due to increased ICP, causing a delay in pupillary reactions. Such a delay is a critical sign of worsening ICP and necessitates immediate intervention. Low blood pressure and increased respiratory rate can occur in various conditions but are less specific to increased ICP than sluggish and unequal pupillary responses, which directly reflect neurological compromise.
A client is admitted with a severe burn injury. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's urine output.
- B. Administer intravenous fluids.
- C. Apply cool, moist compresses to the burn area.
- D. Cover the burn area with a sterile dressing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. In a client with severe burn injury, the priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to prevent shock. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not the priority. Applying cool, moist compresses (Choice C) can be beneficial but is not the priority over fluid resuscitation. Covering the burn area with a sterile dressing (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the immediate priority in managing severe burns.
A client with lung cancer is admitted to palliative care. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Monitor respiratory status and oxygenation.
- B. Evaluate the client's mental status and cognition.
- C. Check the client's pain level and provide comfort.
- D. Assess the client's nutritional status and appetite.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring respiratory status and oxygenation is crucial in clients with lung cancer, as metastasis to the lungs or pleural effusion can compromise breathing. This assessment helps in early identification of respiratory distress and the need for interventions to maintain adequate oxygenation. Choice B is important but not the priority in this situation. Evaluating mental status and cognition should follow after ensuring the client's physiological needs are met. Choice C, checking pain level and providing comfort, is essential but secondary to assessing respiratory status. Choice D, assessing nutritional status and appetite, is also important but not the priority when the client's breathing is at risk.
While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.
A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
- C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
- D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.