A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed as having Parkinson's disease. He is started on Cogentin 0.5 mg PO daily. Which nursing action is most essential at this time?
- A. Monitor his BP and pulse
- B. Encourage cold beverages and hard candies
- C. Observe for rashes
- D. Monitor his stools for fluid loss
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cogentin, an anticholinergic, causes dry mouth; encouraging cold beverages and hard candies helps manage this side effect.
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An adult is receiving Gantrisin 1 g PO qid for a urinary tract infection. Which statement that she makes indicates a need for more teaching?
- A. If I get a rash, I will apply calamine lotion.
- B. I will take my pills with a full glass of water.
- C. I will take all the pills even if I feel better.
- D. I will stay out of the sun while I am taking the pills.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A rash may indicate an adverse reaction to Gantrisin, requiring physician consultation, not self-treatment with calamine lotion.
The client with osteoarthritis is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Time the medication to be given with meals.
- B. Notify the HCP if abdominal striae develop.
- C. Do not administer if oral temperature is greater than 102°F.
- D. Monitor the liver function tests and renal studies.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: NSAIDs with meals reduce GI irritation, a common side effect. Striae, fever, or lab monitoring are less immediate concerns.
The client diagnosed with migraine headaches is prescribed propranolol (Inderal), a beta blocker, for prophylaxis. Which information should the nurse teach the client?
- A. Instruct to take the medication at the first sign of headache.
- B. Teach the client to take his or her radial pulse for one (1) minute.
- C. Explain this drug may make the client thirsty and have a dry mouth.
- D. Discuss the need to increase artificial light in the home.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Propranolol can cause bradycardia; teaching pulse monitoring ensures safety. It’s prophylactic, not acute, and dry mouth or lighting are unrelated.
The client received Narcan, a narcotic antagonist, following a colonoscopy. Which action by the nurse has the highest priority?
- A. Document the occurrence in the nurse's notes.
- B. Prepare to administer narcotic medication IV.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Assess the client every 15 to 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Narcan reverses opioids but has a short half-life; frequent assessment (15–30 min) monitors for re-sedation or respiratory depression, the priority.
The client is complaining of low-back pain and is prescribed the muscle relaxant carisoprodol (Soma). Which teaching intervention has priority?
- A. Explain this medication causes GI distress.
- B. Discuss the need to taper off this medication.
- C. Warn this medication will cause drowsiness.
- D. Instruct the client to limit alcohol intake.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Carisoprodol causes drowsiness, a safety risk (e.g., falls, driving); warning is the priority. GI distress, tapering, or alcohol are secondary.
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