Pathophysiology Practice Questions

Pathophysiology Practice Questions Related

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A 70-year-old woman has difficulty with driving, and she has been frequently getting lost. Her husband said she has also been acting strangely and seems to want to sleep a lot. He said the other night she kept saying she was seeing animals such as lions in her room. He says her memory is not too bad, but he is very concerned about her health. Physical examination reveals an alert woman with stable vital signs. Bradykinesia and limb rigidity are noted. These findings are consistent with:

  • A. Alzheimer's disease.
  • B. vascular dementia.
  • C. dementia with Lewy bodies.
  • D. frontotemporal dementia.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB). Hallucinations, parkinsonian symptoms (like bradykinesia and limb rigidity), and fluctuating cognition are characteristic of DLB. Alzheimer's disease (Choice A) typically presents with memory loss as a prominent feature. Vascular dementia (Choice B) is associated with a history of strokes and step-wise cognitive decline. Frontotemporal dementia (Choice D) often presents with changes in behavior and personality rather than the parkinsonian symptoms seen in this case.

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A patient presents with a chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Tuberculosis
  • B. Pneumonia
  • C. Lung cancer
  • D. Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculosis. Cavitary lesions in the upper lobes are classic findings seen in tuberculosis. This infectious disease commonly presents with symptoms such as chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Pneumonia (Choice B) typically does not present with cavitary lesions on chest X-ray. Lung cancer (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but is less likely to cause cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. Sarcoidosis (Choice D) usually presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and non-caseating granulomas, different from the cavitary lesions described in the case.

A patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 220/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Migraine
  • B. Cluster headache
  • C. Hypertensive emergency
  • D. Tension headache
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A patient with a history of hypertension presenting with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, along with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, likely has a hypertensive emergency. In this situation, the severely elevated blood pressure can lead to end-organ damage, causing symptoms such as headache and confusion. Migraine and tension headaches are not associated with such high blood pressure levels. Cluster headaches typically do not present with visual disturbances and confusion in the setting of severe hypertension.

Which goal is a priority for a client with a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of delirium and the nursing diagnosis Acute confusion related to recent surgery secondary to traumatic hip fracture?

  • A. The client will complete activities of daily living.
  • B. The client will maintain safety.
  • C. The client will remain oriented.
  • D. The client will understand communication.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The client will maintain safety.' For a client with delirium, especially in the context of acute confusion post-surgery, safety is the top priority. Delirium can lead to disorientation, impaired decision-making, and increased risk of falls or accidents. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent harm is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are important but not the priority in this scenario. Completing activities of daily living, remaining oriented, and understanding communication are relevant goals but come after ensuring the client's safety in the presence of delirium and acute confusion.

In which of the following cases is dehydration more likely to occur?

  • A. A 50-year-old woman who is a bodybuilder
  • B. A 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese
  • C. A 10-year-old child who is thin
  • D. A 30-year-old with multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Multiple sclerosis manifests as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body because:

  • A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
  • B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
  • C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
  • D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This attack leads to patchy damage on the myelin sheath, resulting in asymmetrical neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, it is the autoreactive lymphocytes that target and damage the myelin sheath, not acetylcholine receptors, T lymphocytes, or cortical motor cells.

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