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A 72-year-old patient has the medical diagnosis of delirium secondary to anticholinergic medication toxicity. Family members are very anxious and express their concerns about placing the patient in a nursing home. What information should serve as a basis for the nurse's reply?
- A. Delirium is reversible, and the patient will likely recover.
- B. The symptoms are related to depression, which can be treated.
- C. Delirium usually progresses to dementia, which is usually permanent.
- D. Home care should be attempted; a nursing home should be the last resort.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Delirium is an acute, reversible condition caused by underlying factors like medication toxicity.
2. By addressing the anticholinergic medication toxicity, the delirium can be resolved, leading to recovery.
3. The patient's age does not necessarily indicate a progression to dementia.
4. Placing the patient in a nursing home is not the immediate solution; resolving the toxicity should be the priority.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because delirium is reversible with appropriate treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the underlying cause of delirium or provide accurate information about its progression or management.
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A drug causes muscarinic receptor blockade. The nurse will assess the patient for
- A. Dry mouth.
- B. Gynecomastia.
- C. Pseudoparkinsonism.
- D. Orthostatic hypotension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Muscarinic receptor blockade inhibits the action of acetylcholine, leading to decreased salivary gland secretion and causing dry mouth. Gynecomastia (B) is associated with antiandrogen medications. Pseudoparkinsonism (C) is a side effect of antipsychotic medications that block dopamine receptors. Orthostatic hypotension (D) is a side effect of alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockade.
A 35-year-old woman who is being interviewed by the advanced practice nurse indicates that she has few friends, fears criticism from others, and withholds information about her thoughts and feelings because she anticipates a negative reaction. Based on these data, the nurse suspects that Sarah may later be diagnosed as having:
- A. Borderline personality disorder
- B. Histrionic personality disorder
- C. Avoidant personality disorder
- D. Schizoid personality disorder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoidant personality disorder. This is because the woman's fear of criticism, reluctance to share thoughts and feelings, and limited social interactions are characteristic of avoidant personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder have intense feelings of inadequacy, fear of rejection, and avoid situations where they may be criticized or judged.
Choice A: Borderline personality disorder is not the correct answer because individuals with borderline personality disorder typically have unstable relationships, impulsivity, and a fear of abandonment.
Choice B: Histrionic personality disorder is not the correct answer as individuals with this disorder seek attention and exhibit dramatic and attention-seeking behavior, which is not indicated in the scenario.
Choice D: Schizoid personality disorder is not the correct answer as individuals with this disorder tend to have a limited range of emotional expression and lack interest in forming social relationships, which does not align with the woman's fear of criticism and desire to avoid negative reactions.
What is the first intervention a nurse should take when assessing a patient with suspected anorexia nervosa?
- A. Begin refeeding to restore nutritional status.
- B. Measure vital signs to assess the extent of malnutrition.
- C. Start a counseling session to discuss the patient's thoughts on eating.
- D. Involve the family in discussions about treatment plans.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The first intervention a nurse should take when assessing a patient with suspected anorexia nervosa is to measure vital signs to assess the extent of malnutrition. This is crucial to determine the patient's current physiological status and to identify any immediate risks such as dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, or cardiac complications. By measuring vital signs, the nurse can quickly assess the severity of malnutrition and determine the urgency of intervention. Refeeding (choice A) should not be initiated abruptly due to the risk of refeeding syndrome. Starting a counseling session (choice C) may be important but is not the initial priority. Involving the family (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the first step in assessing and managing a patient with anorexia nervosa.
A nurse is working with a family with an elderly family member who is in the predisgnostic phase of Alzheimer disease. The most important nursing intervention at this time would be to provide:
- A. family consultation to facilitate communication.
- B. information about support groups and counseling.
- C. options directed toward the reduction of caregiver stress.
- D. educational materials that help them understand their situation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because educating the family about Alzheimer's disease in the predisgnostic phase helps them understand what to expect and how to cope effectively. This empowers them to make informed decisions and provide appropriate care. Option A focuses on communication, which is important but not the most critical intervention at this stage. Option B is helpful but may not address the family's immediate needs. Option C addresses caregiver stress, which is important but may not be the priority in the predisgnostic phase. Therefore, providing educational materials is the most important intervention to support the family during this phase.
The wife of a patient with schizophrenia is worried about her 17-year-old daughter and asks the nurse what symptoms mark the prodromal stage of schizophrenia. The nurse should respond by listing behaviors such as:
- A. withdrawal, poor concentration, phobic or obsessive behavior, oddities of speech.
- B. auditory hallucinations, ideas of reference, thought insertion, and broadcasting.
- C. stereotyped behavior, echopraxia, echolalia, waxy flexibility, thought-blocking.
- D. looseness of associations, concrete thinking, echolalia, paranoid delusions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the symptoms listed: withdrawal, poor concentration, phobic or obsessive behavior, and oddities of speech are characteristic of the prodromal stage of schizophrenia. During this phase, individuals may start to exhibit subtle changes in behavior and thinking, which may signal the onset of the disorder.
Choice B includes symptoms of active psychosis, such as auditory hallucinations and delusions, which are not typically seen in the prodromal stage. Choice C describes symptoms of catatonia, which are not specific to the prodromal phase. Choice D includes symptoms of acute psychosis, such as paranoid delusions, which are not typically present during the prodromal stage.
In summary, the correct answer is A because it accurately reflects the early, subtle symptoms that may precede the full onset of schizophrenia, while the other choices describe symptoms that are more indicative of later stages of the disorder.