A 72-year-old teacher comes to a skilled nursing facility for rehabilitation after being in the hospital for 6 weeks. She was treated for sepsis and respiratory failure and had to be on the ventilator for 3 weeks. You are completing your initial assessment and are evaluating her skin condition. On her sacrum there is full-thickness skin loss that is 5 cm in diameter, with damage to the subcutaneous tissue. The underlying muscle is not affected. You diagnose this as a pressure ulcer. What is the stage of this ulcer?
- A. Stage 1
- B. Stage 2
- C. Stage 3
- D. Stage 4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A stage 3 pressure ulcer involves full-thickness skin loss with damage and necrosis of the subcutaneous tissue, but the underlying muscle is not affected. In this case, the description of the full-thickness skin loss with involvement of the subcutaneous tissue but not the muscle corresponds to a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Stage 1 involves intact skin with non-blanchable redness, stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss with a shallow open ulcer, and stage 4 involves full-thickness tissue loss with the involvement of muscle, bone, or supporting structures.
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Which area of the arm drains to the epitrochlear nodes?
- A. Ulnar surface of the forearm and hand, little and ring fingers, and ulnar middle finger
- B. Radial surface of the forearm and hand, thumb and index fingers, and radial middle finger
- C. Ulnar surface of the forearm and hand; second, third, and fourth fingers
- D. Radial surface of the forearm and hand; second, third, and fourth fingers
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The area of the arm that drains to the epitrochlear nodes includes the ulnar surface of the forearm and hand, little and ring fingers, and the ulnar side of the middle finger. The epitrochlear nodes are located in the medial aspect of the arm above the elbow, close to the insertion of the biceps brachii muscle. These nodes receive lymphatic drainage from the above-mentioned areas and play a role in the immune response against infections in these regions.
It started a few hours ago, and she has noted nausea with sensitivity to light; she has had headaches like this in the past, usually less than one per week, but not as severe. She does not know of any inciting factors. There has been no change in the frequency of her headaches. She usually takes an over- the-counter analgesic, and this results in resolution of the headache. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis of the type of headache?
- A. Tension
- B. Migraine
- C. Cluster
- D. Analgesic rebound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description of the headache as starting a few hours ago, associated with nausea, sensitivity to light, and being severe in intensity suggests a migraine headache. Migraine headaches are often accompanied by these symptoms, known as migraine features. The fact that the patient experiences headaches like this less than once a week and typically uses over-the-counter analgesics to relieve them is also suggestive of migraines. Tension headaches typically present as a more mild to moderate, band-like pressure around the head, without the associated symptoms of nausea and sensitivity to light. Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating pain around one eye, often accompanied by other symptoms like redness or tearing in the eye. Analgesic rebound headaches occur due to overuse of pain medications and typically present as daily headaches that improve with the same medication that caused them in the first place.
Mr. Jackson is a 50-year-old African-American who has had discomfort between his scrotum and anus. He also has had some fevers and dysuria. Your rectal examination is halted by tenderness anteriorly, but no frank mass is palpable. What is your most likely diagnosis?
- A. Prostate cancer
- B. Colon cancer
- C. Prostatitis
- D. Colonic polyp
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is prostatitis. Prostatitis is the inflammation or infection of the prostate gland, which can cause symptoms such as discomfort between the scrotum and anus (perineum), fevers, and dysuria (painful urination). The tenderness anteriorly during rectal examination is consistent with prostatitis as the prostate gland is located in front of the rectum and can be tender to touch when inflamed. Prostate cancer typically presents with symptoms such as urinary frequency, nocturia, hematuria, or bone pain, and is less likely to cause the symptoms described in this scenario. Colon cancer and colonic polyps are less likely as they would not typically cause discomfort in the perineal area or dysuria.
A 42-year-old florist comes to your office, complaining of chronic constipation for the last 6 months. She has had no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea and no abdominal pain or cramping. She denies any recent illnesses or injuries. She denies any changes to her diet or exercise program. She is on no new medications. During the review of systems you note that she has felt fatigued, had some weight gain, has irregular periods, and has cold intolerance. Her past medical history is significant for one vaginal delivery and two cesarean sections. She is married, has three children, and owns a flower shop. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has coronary artery disease. There is no family history of cancers. On examination she appears her stated age. Her vital signs are normal. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. Her cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also unremarkable. Her rectal occult blood test is negative. Her deep tendon reflexes are delayed in response to a blow with the hammer, especially the Achilles tendons. What is the best choice for the cause of her constipation?
- A. Large bowel obstruction
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Rectal cancer
- D. Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The constellation of symptoms described in the scenario, including chronic constipation, fatigue, weight gain, irregular periods, cold intolerance, and delayed deep tendon reflexes, suggests hypothyroidism as the likely cause. Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a slowdown in bodily functions. Constipation is a common symptom of hypothyroidism due to the decreased motility of the bowel. The presence of cold intolerance, weight gain, and irregular periods further supports this diagnosis, as these are classic symptoms of hypothyroidism. The delayed deep tendon reflexes, especially in the Achilles tendons, are indicative of the myopathic changes that can occur in hypothyroidism. It is important to further investigate thyroid function through laboratory testing to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment. Other conditions such as large bowel obstruction, irritable bowel syndrome, and rectal cancer are less likely based
He is concerned about his weight. Based on this information, what is appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit?
- A. Refer the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic.
- B. Reassure the patient that he has a normal body weight.
- C. Give the patient information about reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is overweight.
- D. Give the patient information about reduction of fat and cholesterol because he is obese.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit would be to give information about the reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is concerned about his weight. This option addresses the patient's concern and provides guidance on making healthier choices to manage weight. Referring the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic (Option A) is not appropriate based on the information provided. Reassuring the patient that he has a normal body weight (Option B) may not address his concerns about weight. Giving the patient information about reducing fat and cholesterol only because he is obese (Option D) does not cover all aspects of a healthy diet such as managing calorie intake.