Nokea
A 79-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital a month ago with an acute ischemic stroke. Which would be the next best step in management?
- A. Start escitalopram 5 mg orally daily.
- B. Start eszopiclone 1 mg orally at bedtime.
- C. Start a high-calorie supplement twice a day.
- D. Change the time at which she gets physical therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Start a high-calorie supplement twice a day. After an acute ischemic stroke, nutritional support is crucial for recovery and prevention of complications. Malnutrition is common post-stroke due to swallowing difficulties and decreased appetite. High-calorie supplements can help meet the patient's nutritional needs.
Choice A (escitalopram) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, which may not be the immediate priority in this case. Choice B (eszopiclone) is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic used for insomnia, which is not directly related to managing the patient's stroke. Choice D (changing the time of physical therapy) may be beneficial, but ensuring adequate nutrition is more critical in the acute phase of stroke recovery.
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A light is pointed at a patient's pupil, which contracts. It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light. Which of the following terms describes this latter phenomenon?
- A. Direct reaction
- B. Consensual reaction
- C. Near reaction
- D. Accommodation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct term for the phenomenon described is "Consensual reaction" (Choice B). This occurs because the optic nerves from both eyes are connected, causing stimulation of one eye to result in a simultaneous response in the other eye due to the consensual pupillary reflex. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Direct reaction refers to the pupil directly exposed to light contracting.
C: Near reaction refers to the pupillary response when focusing on a near object.
D: Accommodation refers to the ability of the eye to adjust focus for near and far objects, not pupil constriction.
A 19-year-old college student, Todd, is brought to your clinic by his mother. She is concerned that there is something seriously wrong with him. She states for the past 6 months his behavior has become peculiar and he has flunked out of college. Todd denies any recent illness or injuries. His past medical history is remarkable only for a broken foot. His parents are both healthy. He has a paternal uncle who had similar symptoms in college. The patient admits to smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol. He also admits to marijuana use but none in the last week. He denies using any other substances. He denies any feelings of depression or anxiety. While speaking with Todd and his mother you do a complete physical examination, which is essentially normal. When you question him on how he is feeling, he says that he is very worried that Microsoft has stolen his software for creating a better browser. He tells you he has seen a black van in his neighborhood at night and he is sure that it is full of computer tech workers stealing his work through special gamma waves. You ask him why he believes they are trying to steal his programs. He replies that the technicians have been telepathing their intents directly into his head. He says he hears these conversations at night so he knows this is happening. Todd's mother then tells you, "See, I told you . . . he's crazy. What do I do about it?" While arranging for a psychiatry consult, what psychotic disorder do you think Todd has?
- A. Schizoaffective disorder
- B. Psychotic disorder due to a medical illness
- C. Substance-induced psychotic disorder
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Schizophrenia. Todd presents with a history of peculiar behavior, academic decline, paranoid delusions, and auditory hallucinations. These are classic symptoms of schizophrenia, a chronic and severe mental disorder. Schizoaffective disorder (A) involves a mix of schizophrenia symptoms and mood disturbances, but Todd does not exhibit significant mood symptoms. Psychotic disorder due to a medical illness (B) would require evidence of a medical condition causing Todd's symptoms, which is not present. Substance-induced psychotic disorder (C) would require Todd's symptoms to be solely due to substance use, but his symptoms persist despite marijuana abstinence. Therefore, based on Todd's symptoms and history, the most likely diagnosis is schizophrenia.
The following information is recorded in the health history: "Patient denies chest pain, palpitations, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea." Which category does it belong to?
- A. Chief complaint
- B. Present illness
- C. Personal and social history
- D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Review of systems. In this case, the information provided pertains to specific symptoms related to the cardiovascular system. The review of systems involves asking about symptoms in various body systems to identify any potential issues. This information helps in identifying any underlying health concerns that the patient may not have mentioned as their main complaint.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Chief complaint - This is the main reason for the patient's visit or primary concern, not a list of symptoms.
B: Present illness - Focuses on the details of the current medical issue, not a general review of symptoms.
C: Personal and social history - Pertains to the patient's lifestyle, habits, and social support, not specific symptoms related to body systems.
Symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation are associated with:
- A. Hiatal hernia
- B. Gastroesophageal reflux
- C. Peptic ulcer disease
- D. Esophageal cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastroesophageal reflux. Heartburn and regurgitation are classic symptoms of GERD, where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus. This causes a burning sensation in the chest and sour taste in the mouth. Hiatal hernia (A) can contribute to GERD but is not directly associated with these symptoms. Peptic ulcer disease (C) typically presents with stomach pain, not heartburn. Esophageal cancer (D) may present with difficulty swallowing and weight loss, not just heartburn and regurgitation. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer.
Which of the following is an early sign of dehydration in older adults?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth and skin
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Increased thirst
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth and skin. Dehydration in older adults can lead to dry mouth and skin due to the lack of proper hydration. This is an early sign as the body starts to lose water. Weight gain (A) is not indicative of dehydration, as it typically occurs with fluid retention. Decreased urine output (C) is a later sign of dehydration, as the body conserves water. Increased thirst (D) is a response to dehydration but not an early sign. Therefore, dry mouth and skin are the most relevant early indicators of dehydration in older adults.