Nokea
A case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure might include all of the following except:
- A. physician follow-up appointments with transportation
- B. client education regarding medication use
- C. a nutritional consult for diet review and accommodation
- D. insurance review for reimbursement
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure, the focus is on providing medical care and support to the patient. Choices A, B, and C are integral parts of managing congestive heart failure. Physician follow-up appointments with transportation ensure continuity of care, client education about medication use is crucial for adherence, and a nutritional consult helps in managing the patient's diet. However, insurance review for reimbursement is not typically part of the clinical pathway as it pertains to financial aspects and is usually handled by billing departments or external agencies. Therefore, the correct answer is 'insurance review for reimbursement.'
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What is the purpose of the hydraulic lift (Hoyer lift)?
- A. To assist clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
- B. To assist clients who are unable to stand and extremely obese clients.
- C. To assist clients of all ages in a hospital setting.
- D. To assist clients with special needs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of the hydraulic lift, also known as the Hoyer lift, is to facilitate safe transfers for clients who cannot stand or are extremely obese. It is specifically designed for assisting clients who are unable to stand and for those who are too heavy for healthcare workers to lift safely. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of a hydraulic lift is not related to orthopedic surgery. Choice C is incorrect because it is too broad and does not capture the specific use of the hydraulic lift. Choice D is incorrect because the lift is not solely for clients with special needs but rather for those who cannot stand or are extremely obese.
What is the most effective way to prevent skin breakdown?
- A. assistive devices
- B. repositioning
- C. topical medications
- D. avoiding tape and bandages
Correct Answer: V
Rationale: Repositioning is the most effective way to prevent skin breakdown. Repositioning helps relieve pressure on specific areas of the skin, reducing the risk of developing pressure ulcers. While assistive devices (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases, they are not universally as effective as repositioning. Topical medications (Choice C) are primarily used for treating skin conditions and are not the primary focus for preventing skin breakdown. Avoiding tape and bandages (Choice D) is crucial to prevent skin irritation, but repositioning remains the most effective method to prevent skin breakdown.
What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?
- A. 5:01
- B. 1:05
- C. 15:02
- D. 2:15
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.
Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?
- A. variable decelerations
- B. early decelerations
- C. bradycardia
- D. tachycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.
The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?
- A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
- B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
- C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
- D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.