Nokea
A causative agent is
- A. Any microorganism in the body
- B. A pathogen or microorganism that causes disease
- C. Normal flora that live in or on the body
- D. The waiting period between the time the pathogen enters the body and the time it causes infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a causative agent is specifically a pathogen or microorganism that causes disease in the body. Pathogens are infectious agents that can lead to illness or disease. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Any microorganism in the body does not necessarily cause disease, C) Normal flora are beneficial bacteria and do not always cause disease, and D) The waiting period between pathogen entry and infection is known as the incubation period, not the causative agent.
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While evaluating the twelve-lead electrocardiogram tracing of your 66-year-old cardiac history patient for the possibility of an acute myocardial infarction, you note the presence of deep symmetrically inverted T waves. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this abnormal finding?
- A. Necrosis
- B. Ischemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ischemia. Deep symmetrically inverted T waves on an ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia, where the heart muscle is not receiving enough oxygen-rich blood. This can lead to reversible changes in the ECG tracing. Ischemia is a common cause of T wave changes in patients with a cardiac history, suggesting ongoing heart strain. Necrosis (choice A) would typically present with pathological Q waves on ECG, not T wave inversions. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may cause peaked T waves, not symmetrically inverted ones. Hypokalemia (choice D) can lead to flattened or U-shaped T waves, not deep symmetric inversions.
Which of the following is the best way for a nursing assistant to care for a resident with a functional barrier?
- A. The NA should prevent the resident from resting to help keep his body active.
- B. The NA should remove oxygen only long enough to clean the resident's face and ears.
- C. The NA should encourage the resident to speak quickly during conversations to keep the vocal cords strong.
- D. The NA should use a communication board to help the resident ask questions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using a communication board helps the resident with a functional barrier to ask questions effectively. This approach promotes clear communication and empowers the resident to express their needs.
A is incorrect as preventing the resident from resting is not beneficial for someone with a functional barrier.
B is incorrect as removing oxygen can be harmful and is not necessary for cleaning the face and ears.
C is incorrect as encouraging the resident to speak quickly may cause stress and is not a recommended approach for maintaining vocal cord strength.
You are preparing to initiate a rapid sequence intubation on a pediatric patient who is exhibiting a borderline hypotensive state with a decreased level of consciousness and hypoventilation. He is quickly becoming hypoxic with a SpO2 of 77% and a delayed capillary refill. Which medication would be most effective in sedating this patient for the procedure?
- A. Succinylcholine
- B. Midazolam
- C. Ketamine
- D. Propofol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ketamine. Ketamine is the most effective choice for sedating this pediatric patient for rapid sequence intubation due to its properties of providing sedation, analgesia, and maintenance of airway reflexes. Its rapid onset and short duration of action make it ideal for this situation. Additionally, ketamine can help maintain the patient's blood pressure and respiratory drive, which is crucial in a borderline hypotensive state with hypoventilation.
Succinylcholine (A) is a paralytic agent and does not provide sedation or analgesia, so it would not address the patient's need for sedation. Midazolam (B) and Propofol (D) are sedatives but may cause respiratory depression and hypotension, which could worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, they are not the most appropriate choices in this scenario.
2 What is the purpose of the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?
- A. To offer in-service training for nursing assistants
- B. To keep protected health information (PHI) private
- C. To encourage people to make decisions about advance directives
- D. To detail how abuse should be reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To encourage people to make decisions about advance directives. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires healthcare facilities to inform patients about their rights to make decisions about their medical care, including the right to create advance directives. This law empowers individuals to communicate their healthcare wishes in advance, ensuring their preferences are respected even if they are unable to make decisions later.
Choice A is incorrect because the PSDA is not specifically focused on training nursing assistants. Choice B is incorrect as the PSDA does not pertain to the privacy of protected health information, which is covered under HIPAA. Choice D is incorrect as the PSDA is not related to reporting abuse, which is typically governed by state laws and facility policies.
A pulse oximeter measures
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Body temperature
- C. Blood oxygen level
- D. Blood glucose level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood oxygen level. A pulse oximeter measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, indicating how well oxygen is being carried to the body's tissues. It does this by shining light through the skin to detect the amount of oxygen-bound hemoglobin in the blood. Choice A, blood pressure, is measured using a sphygmomanometer. Choice B, body temperature, is typically measured using a thermometer. Choice D, blood glucose level, is measured using a glucometer. Thus, the correct answer is C as it directly aligns with the function and purpose of a pulse oximeter.