Nokea
A characteristic of monozygotic twins is that
- A. They are always of the same sex
- B. They share a similar fingerprint pattern
- C. They have different blood groups
- D. Superfetation is a common finding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: They are always of the same sex. This is because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg that splits into two embryos. As a result, they share the same genetic material and are always of the same sex.
Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not determined by genetics and can vary even between identical twins. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins share the same blood type since they have the same genetic makeup. Choice D is incorrect as superfetation, the occurrence of multiple pregnancies in the same uterus but from different ovulations, is extremely rare and not a common finding in monozygotic twins.
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The term used to describe pure fetal blood loss that occurs following a ruptured vasa praevia is
- A. Fetal extra-versation
- B. Fetal exsanguination
- C. Velamentous bleeding
- D. Fetal hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal exsanguination. This term accurately describes the process of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia. Exsanguination refers to severe blood loss leading to death. In this context, it specifically denotes the loss of fetal blood due to the rupture of vasa praevia, which can be fatal for the fetus.
A: Fetal extra-versation is not a recognized medical term and does not accurately describe the scenario presented in the question.
C: Velamentous bleeding refers to a condition where fetal blood vessels are unprotected by the umbilical cord and run through the amniotic membranes, not specifically related to ruptured vasa praevia.
D: Fetal hemorrhage is a general term for fetal blood loss and does not specifically address the situation of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia.
Which one of the following signs is indicative of possible shoulder dystocia during delivery?
- A. Failure of internal rotation of the head
- B. Fetal head retracts against the perineum
- C. Gentle traction aids in effecting the delivery
- D. The occiput slowly restitutes towards the left side
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal head retracts against the perineum. This sign indicates possible shoulder dystocia as it suggests the baby's shoulders are impacted and unable to pass through the birth canal. The retraction of the fetal head against the perineum is a classic sign of shoulder dystocia, which requires specific maneuvers to dislodge the shoulders and facilitate delivery.
A: Failure of internal rotation of the head is not specific to shoulder dystocia.
C: Gentle traction should not be applied in cases of shoulder dystocia as it can worsen the situation.
D: The occiput restituting towards the left side is not a sign of shoulder dystocia, as it refers to the rotation of the fetal head during delivery.
The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include
- A. Observation
- B. Hyperextension casting
- C. Jewett brace
- D. Surgical intervention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observation. As an AGACNP, observation is crucial for monitoring the progression of the condition before considering any invasive treatments. Hyperextension casting (B) and Jewett brace (C) are more specific interventions for spinal conditions and not typically indicated for this scenario. Surgical intervention (D) is typically considered only if conservative treatments fail, making it a last resort option. Therefore, observation allows for a conservative approach to assess the patient's response to initial management before considering more aggressive interventions.
A condition of trial of scar is
- A. Estimated fetal weight of less than 3600g
- B. Availability of a level one hospital nearby
- C. Not more than two previous caesarean section scars
- D. An adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Not more than two previous caesarean section scars. This is because a trial of scar refers to a trial of labor in a woman who has had previous cesarean sections. The guideline typically recommends that a trial of scar should be considered in women with no more than two previous cesarean section scars to reduce the risk of uterine rupture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the estimated fetal weight, availability of a level one hospital, and pelvis size are not specific criteria used to determine eligibility for a trial of scar.
What is the significance of amniotic fluid analysis during pregnancy?
- A. Detect fetal infections
- B. Assess fetal lung maturity
- C. Determine fetal position
- D. Assess placental health
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess fetal lung maturity. Amniotic fluid analysis measures the levels of substances like surfactant, which indicates lung maturity. This helps in determining if the fetus is ready for delivery. Other choices are incorrect because amniotic fluid analysis is not primarily used to detect fetal infections (A), determine fetal position (C), or assess placental health (D). These functions are typically achieved through other diagnostic tests or imaging techniques.