Nokea
A characteristic of monozygotic twins is that
- A. They are always of the same sex
- B. They share a similar fingerprint pattern
- C. They have different blood groups
- D. Superfetation is a common finding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: They are always of the same sex. This is because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg that splits into two embryos. As a result, they share the same genetic material and are always of the same sex.
Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not determined by genetics and can vary even between identical twins. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins share the same blood type since they have the same genetic makeup. Choice D is incorrect as superfetation, the occurrence of multiple pregnancies in the same uterus but from different ovulations, is extremely rare and not a common finding in monozygotic twins.
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Which one of the following signs is indicative of possible shoulder dystocia during delivery?
- A. Failure of internal rotation of the head
- B. Fetal head retracts against the perineum
- C. Gentle traction aids in effecting the delivery
- D. The occiput slowly restitutes towards the left side
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal head retracts against the perineum. This sign indicates possible shoulder dystocia as it suggests the baby's shoulders are impacted and unable to pass through the birth canal. The retraction of the fetal head against the perineum is a classic sign of shoulder dystocia, which requires specific maneuvers to dislodge the shoulders and facilitate delivery.
A: Failure of internal rotation of the head is not specific to shoulder dystocia.
C: Gentle traction should not be applied in cases of shoulder dystocia as it can worsen the situation.
D: The occiput restituting towards the left side is not a sign of shoulder dystocia, as it refers to the rotation of the fetal head during delivery.
What is the significance of amniotic fluid analysis during pregnancy?
- A. Detect fetal infections
- B. Assess fetal lung maturity
- C. Determine fetal position
- D. Assess placental health
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess fetal lung maturity. Amniotic fluid analysis measures the levels of substances like surfactant, which indicates lung maturity. This helps in determining if the fetus is ready for delivery. Other choices are incorrect because amniotic fluid analysis is not primarily used to detect fetal infections (A), determine fetal position (C), or assess placental health (D). These functions are typically achieved through other diagnostic tests or imaging techniques.
Which one of the following clinical features denotes cardiac disease grade III?
- A. Patient is comfortable even at rest
- B. Patient is asymptomatic initially
- C. Marked limitation of physical activity
- D. Absolute limitation of physical activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marked limitation of physical activity. In cardiac disease grading, grade III signifies marked limitation of physical activity. This indicates that the patient experiences symptoms with less than ordinary physical activity, such as shortness of breath or chest pain. This grade reflects significant impairment in daily activities due to cardiac issues.
A: Patient is comfortable even at rest - This describes grade I, where patients are comfortable at rest.
B: Patient is asymptomatic initially - This describes pre-symptomatic stages before any limitations in physical activity.
D: Absolute limitation of physical activity - This is more severe and indicative of grade IV, where any physical activity causes discomfort or symptoms.
A medical/obstetric predisposing factor to puerperal sepsis includes
- A. Delivery by unskilled birth attendants
- B. Emergency cesarean section
- C. Poor personal hygiene
- D. Delay in care seeking
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Emergency cesarean section. Emergency cesarean sections can increase the risk of puerperal sepsis due to the urgency of the procedure, which may lead to inadequate sterilization or contamination. Other choices are less directly associated with puerperal sepsis: A may increase the risk of infection, but not specifically puerperal sepsis. C relates to general hygiene practices and D focuses on delays in seeking care, which may affect treatment outcomes but are not direct predisposing factors to puerperal sepsis.
Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour
- A. That is concluded in less than three hours
- B. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate despite good uterine contractions
- C. That is concluded in more than three hours
- D. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor.
2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition.
3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor.
4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours.
5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor.
Summary:
Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.