A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?
- A. The client's room number
- B. The client's telephone number
- C. The client's birth date
- D. The client's medical record number
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's room number. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not appropriate as it does not uniquely identify the client and can lead to errors. The room number may change, or there could be multiple clients in the same room. Telephone number, birth date, and medical record number are more reliable secondary identifiers as they are unique to the client and less likely to be confused with another individual. It is essential to use accurate and reliable identifiers to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors.
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A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
- C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
- D. Administer methylergonovine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assist the client to the bathroom to void. This action can help promote uterine contractions by relieving bladder distention, which can cause the fundus to be displaced. Voiding can help the uterus return to its normal position and firmness. Placing the client in a side-lying position (A) may be helpful for fundal massage but addressing bladder distention is the priority. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin (C) or administering methylergonovine (D) are not indicated as first-line interventions for a fundus located above the umbilicus postpartum.
When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?
- A. Blood-tinged sputum
- B. Dizziness
- C. Pallor
- D. Somnolence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dizziness. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension, leading to dizziness. This is a common side effect and needs to be monitored to prevent falls or injury. Blood-tinged sputum (A) is not typically associated with nifedipine use. Pallor (C) is not a common manifestation of nifedipine side effects. Somnolence (D) is also not a common side effect of nifedipine. Dizziness is the most relevant and potentially harmful manifestation to monitor for in a client receiving nifedipine for preterm labor.
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
- B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
- C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
- D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to poor appetite and weight loss.
2. Eating foods that appeal to taste can help the client consume more calories and nutrients.
3. Balancing meals may not be a priority during hyperemesis gravidarum as the focus is on maintaining adequate nutrition.
4. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's nutritional needs or coping with hyperemesis gravidarum.
A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. A newborn who is 26 hours old and has erythema toxicum on their face
- B. A newborn who is 32 hours old and has not passed meconium stool
- C. A newborn who is 12 hours old and has pink-tinged urine
- D. A newborn who is 18 hours old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F) in a newborn is above the normal range and could indicate a fever, which is a significant concern in newborns due to their immature immune systems. Fever in newborns can be a sign of serious infections that require immediate medical attention.
A: Erythema toxicum is a common rash in newborns and typically resolves on its own without medical intervention.
B: Failure to pass meconium stool by 48 hours may be a concern but not as urgent as a fever.
C: Pink-tinged urine in the first few days of life is likely due to uric acid crystals and is considered normal in newborns.
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?
- A. Missed abortion
- B. Ectopic pregnancy
- C. Severe preeclampsia
- D. Hydatidiform mole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. Given the client's symptoms of right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, missed menstrual cycle, and presence of an intrauterine device, these are classic signs of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube, leading to abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Missed abortion would typically present with cramping, bleeding, and passage of tissue.
C: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not the symptoms described.
D: Hydatidiform mole would typically present with vaginal bleeding and uterine enlargement, but not the sharp abdominal pain described.