Nokea
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving opioid analgesia for adverse effects of the medication. Which of the following effects should the nurse anticipate? Select all.
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Orthostatic hypotension
- E. Nausea
Correct Answer: C, D, E
Rationale: The correct answers are C, D, and E. Opioid analgesics can cause respiratory depression (bradypnea), leading to shallow breathing. Orthostatic hypotension is a potential side effect due to vasodilation. Nausea is common with opioid use as they can stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Urinary incontinence (A) and diarrhea (B) are not typically associated with opioid analgesics. So, the nurse should anticipate monitoring for bradypnea, orthostatic hypotension, and nausea as potential adverse effects.
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A nurse educator is conducting a parenting class for new parents. Which of the following statements made by a participant indicates a need for further clarification & instruction?
- A. I will begin swimming lessons as soon as my baby can close her mouth under water.'
- B. Once my baby can sit up, he should be safe in the bathtub.'
- C. I will test the temp of the water before placing my baby in the bath.'
- D. Once my infant starts to push up, I will remove the mobile from over the bed.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Once my baby can sit up, he should be safe in the bathtub." This statement indicates a need for further clarification because infants are not safe to be left unattended in the bathtub even if they can sit up. They are still at risk of drowning. It is essential for the caregiver to always supervise the baby closely during bath time to ensure their safety. Testing the water temperature (Choice C) and removing the mobile from over the bed (Choice D) are appropriate safety measures. Beginning swimming lessons when the baby can close her mouth under water (Choice A) may be premature but not necessarily dangerous.
A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 minutes. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
Correct Answer: 83
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we can use the formula: Drip rate = (Volume to be infused in gtt) / Time in minutes. In this case, the volume to be infused is 250 mL, and the time is 30 minutes. Convert 250 mL to drops: 250 mL x 10 gtt/mL = 2500 gtt. Now, divide 2500 gtt by 30 minutes to get 83.33 gtt/min. Since we can't administer a fraction of a drop, we round down to the nearest whole number, which is 83 gtt/min. This rate ensures the 0.9% NaCl solution is administered accurately over the specified time. Other choices are incorrect because they do not result from the correct calculation based on the given information.
A nursing instructor is reviewing the wound healing process with a group of nursing students. They should be able to identify which of the following alterations as a wound or injury that heals by secondary intention? Select all.
- A. Stage III pressure ulcer
- B. Sutured surgical incision
- C. Casted bone fracture
- D. Laceration sealed with adhesive
- E. Open burn area
Correct Answer: A, E
Rationale: The correct answers are A and E because wounds healing by secondary intention involve tissue loss and heal from the bottom up with granulation tissue filling in the wound. A Stage III pressure ulcer and an open burn area are examples of wounds that heal by secondary intention due to tissue loss.
Choices B and D are incorrect because sutured surgical incisions and lacerations sealed with adhesive heal by primary intention, where wound edges are approximated and heal with minimal scarring. Choice C, a casted bone fracture, is incorrect as fractures heal through a different process involving the formation of callus and subsequent bone remodeling, not by secondary intention healing.
A nurse is instructing an AP in caring for a client who has a low platelet count as a result of chemotherapy. Which of the following is the nurse's priority instruction for measuring vital signs for this client?
- A. Don't measure the client's temperature rectally.'
- B. Count the client's radial pulse for 30 seconds & multiply by 2.'
- C. Don't let the client know you are counting her respirations.'
- D. Let the client rest for 5 minutes before you measure her BP.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Don't measure the client's temperature rectally.
Rationale: Clients with low platelet count are at risk for bleeding. Rectal temperature measurement poses a risk of mucosal injury and bleeding due to the fragility of the rectal mucosa. Therefore, the nurse's priority instruction is to avoid rectal temperature measurement to prevent any potential harm to the client.
Summary:
B: Counting the radial pulse for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is a valid method for measuring heart rate but is not the priority instruction in this case.
C: It is important for the client to be aware that respirations are being counted to ensure accurate measurement. However, this is not the priority instruction for vital sign measurement.
D: Allowing the client to rest for 5 minutes before measuring blood pressure is a good practice, but it is not the priority instruction compared to avoiding rectal temperature measurement for a client with low platelet count.
A client is about to undergo an elective surgical procedure. Which of the following actions are appropriate for the nurse who is providing preop care regarding informed consent? Select all.
- A. Make sure the surgeon obtained the client's consent
- B. Witness the client's signature on the consent form
- C. Explain the risks and benefits of the procedure
- D. Describe the consequences of choosing not to have the surgery
- E. Tell the client about alternatives to having the surgery
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale:
A: The nurse should ensure the surgeon obtained the client's consent as the surgeon is responsible for informing the client about the procedure and obtaining consent.
B: Witnessing the client's signature on the consent form ensures that the client signed voluntarily and with full understanding.
Summary:
C: While explaining risks and benefits is important, it is primarily the surgeon's responsibility.
D: Describing consequences of not having surgery is relevant but not directly related to obtaining informed consent.
E: Although discussing alternatives is crucial, it is not a direct part of the informed consent process.