Nokea
A child diagnosed with asthma begins corticosteroid treatments. The nurse explains to the parents that the purpose of corticosteroid treatment is to produce which therapeutic effect?
- A. Dilation of bronchial airways
- B. Decrease bronchospasms
- C. Prevention of infection
- D. Anti-inflammatory effect
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Corticosteroid usage is common for decreasing inflammation of the bronchial airways. While dilation of bronchial airways and decrease in bronchospasms are effects of other medications like albuterol and beta-2 agonists, corticosteroids specifically target inflammation, which is a key component in managing chronic asthma.
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A woman in active labor receives a narcotic analgesic for pain control. If the narcotic is given a half an hour before delivery, which effect will the medication have on the infant?
- A. It will cause the infant's blood sugar to fall.
- B. It will cause the infant's respiratory rate to decrease.
- C. It will cause the infant's heart rate to increase.
- D. It will cause the infant's movements to be hyperactive.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It will cause the infant's respiratory rate to decrease. Narcotic analgesics can cross the placenta and affect the baby. These medications can depress the respiratory drive of the newborn, leading to decreased respiratory rate. This effect is particularly pronounced if the narcotic is given shortly before delivery when the drug levels in the infant's system are highest. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Narcotics are not known to directly affect blood sugar levels in infants. C) Narcotics typically cause a decrease, rather than an increase, in heart rate. D) Narcotics are more likely to cause sedation and decreased movements rather than hyperactivity in newborns.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 wks gestation during a routine prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Swelling of the face
- B. Varicose veins in the calves
- C. Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema
- D. Hyperpigmentation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling of the face. Facial swelling in a pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation could be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. It is important to report this finding promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Varicose veins in the calves (B) and hyperpigmentation (D) are common in pregnancy but are not urgent issues requiring immediate reporting. Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema (C) is a common finding in pregnancy but is not as concerning as facial swelling. Make sure to report any change in the severity of edema.
A nurse is caring for a prenatal client who has parvovirus B19 (fifth disease). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer antiviral medication
- B. Schedule an ultrasound examination
- C. Administer Haemophilus influenza type b vaccine
- D. Schedule an indirect Coombs’ test
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Schedule an ultrasound examination. Parvovirus B19 in pregnancy can lead to complications such as fetal hydrops. An ultrasound can monitor fetal well-being and detect any abnormalities. Administering antiviral medication (A) is not typically recommended for parvovirus B19. Administering the Haemophilus influenza type b vaccine (C) is unrelated to this condition. Performing an indirect Coombs' test (D) is used to detect maternal antibodies in Rh incompatibility, not related to parvovirus B19.
Which assessment finding indicates that placental separation has occurred during the third stage of labor?
- A. Decreased vaginal bleeding
- B. Contractions stop
- C. Maternal shaking and chills
- D. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lengthening of the umbilical cord. This indicates placental separation as the placenta detaches from the uterine wall, causing the cord to lengthen. A: Decreased vaginal bleeding is incorrect as bleeding typically increases due to separation. B: Contractions stopping is not indicative of placental separation but can occur after the placenta is delivered. C: Maternal shaking and chills are signs of postpartum shivering, not placental separation.
During the first twelve hours following a normal vaginal delivery, the client voids 2,000 mL of urine. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
- A. Urinary tract infection
- B. High output renal failure
- C. Excessive use of IV fluids during delivery
- D. Normal diuresis after delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct interpretation is D: Normal diuresis after delivery. After childbirth, diuresis is common due to the body eliminating excess fluid retained during pregnancy. This process helps reduce swelling and aids in returning to pre-pregnancy state. Voiding 2,000 mL in the first twelve hours is within the expected range for postpartum diuresis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiologic response to childbirth. Urinary tract infection and high output renal failure would present with other symptoms, while excessive IV fluid use would not explain the timing or volume of urine output.