Nokea
A child is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and diagnostic studies are performed. Which diagnostic result is indicative of this disorder?
- A. An elevated platelet count
- B. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
- C. Bone marrow exam showing increased megakaryocytes
- D. Bone marrow exam indicating increased immature white blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The laboratory manifestations of ITP include the presence of a low platelet count of usually less than 20,000 mm^3 (20 × 10^9/L). Thrombocytopenia is the only laboratory abnormality expected with ITP. If there has been significant blood loss, there is evidence of anemia in the blood cell count. If a bone marrow examination is performed, the results with ITP show a normal or increased number of megakaryocytes, which are the precursors of platelets. Option 4 indicates the bone marrow result that would be found in a child with leukemia.
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The nurse interprets that which observation is related to the dysfunction of cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve)?
- A. Mild drowsiness
- B. Unilateral ptosis
- C. Diminished mental acuity
- D. Less frequent spontaneous speech
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ptosis of the eyelid is caused by pressure on and the dysfunction of cranial nerve III, the oculomotor nerve. The remaining options identify early signs of a deteriorating level of consciousness.
A client diagnosed with a thrombotic stroke experiences periods of emotional lability. What should the nurse interpret this behavior as indicating?
- A. That the client is not adapting well to the disability
- B. That the problem is likely to get worse before it gets better
- C. That the client is experiencing the usual sequelae of a stroke
- D. That the client is experiencing the side effects of prescribed anticoagulants
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a thrombotic stroke, the client often experiences periods of emotional lability, which are characterized by sudden bouts of laughing or crying or by irritability, depression, confusion, or being demanding. This is a normal part of the clinical picture of the client with this health problem, although it may be difficult for health care personnel and family members to deal with it. The other options are incorrect.
A child was diagnosed with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis and renal insufficiency. Which laboratory result should the nurse expect to note in the child?
- A. Urine positive for glucose and negative for protein
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.020 and negative for red blood cells
- C. White blood cell count 18,000 mm^3 (18 × 10^9/L) and platelets 355,000 mm^3 (355 × 10^9/L)
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dL (7.92 mmol/L) and creatinine levels of 2.1 mg/dL (185 mcmol/L)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: With poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, a urinalysis will reveal hematuria with red cell casts. Proteinuria is also present. If renal insufficiency is severe, the BUN and creatinine levels will be elevated. The WBC is usually within normal limits, and mild anemia is common. Platelets would be lower, whereas glucose is not related.
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained during a lumbar puncture from a child who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which result would most likely confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Clear CSF with low protein and low glucose
- B. Cloudy CSF with low protein and low glucose
- C. Cloudy CSF with high protein and low glucose
- D. Decreased pressure and cloudy CSF with high protein
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A diagnosis of meningitis is made by testing CSF obtained by lumbar puncture. In the case of bacterial meningitis, findings usually include increased pressure and cloudy CSF with high protein and low glucose. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.
A pregnant client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse is prescribed anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy. The nurse reviews the client's medical record, expecting to note that which medication therapy is prescribed daily?
- A. Oral warfarin
- B. Intravenous infusion of heparin sodium
- C. Subcutaneous administration of terbutaline
- D. Subcutaneous administration of heparin sodium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnant women with mitral valve prolapse are frequently given anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy because they are at greater risk for thromboembolic disease during the antenatal, intrapartal, and postpartum periods. Heparin, which does not pass the placental barrier, is a safe anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy, and it would be administered by the subcutaneous route. Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy because it passes the placental barrier and causes potential fetal malformations and hemorrhagic disorders. Terbutaline is a medication that is indicated for preterm labor management.