Nokea
A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The nurse should monitor the child closely for which problem?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario of persistent vomiting, the child is at risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, resulting in an imbalance that causes metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis is incorrect as it would occur in a child with diarrhea due to the loss of bicarbonate. While diarrhea can sometimes be associated with vomiting, in this case, the primary focus is on the effects of vomiting. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with vomiting, making this choice less relevant to the situation described.
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What nursing action demonstrates the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?
- A. The nurse assesses extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour.
- B. The nurse orders meals with adequate protein and calcium for the patient.
- C. The nurse teaches the patient never to insert objects under a cast to scratch an itch.
- D. The nurse administers oral painkillers as ordered.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour. This action aligns with the priority nursing diagnosis of Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction related to fractures. Monitoring these factors is crucial to detect any signs of compromised circulation or nerve function promptly. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis. Option C is important but does not directly relate to the neurovascular aspect. Option D, administering painkillers, is necessary but does not specifically address the priority nursing diagnosis of neurovascular dysfunction.
A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client
- A. Has increased airway obstruction
- B. Has improved airway obstruction
- C. Needs to be suctioned
- D. Exhibits hyperventilation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The higher pitched a sound is, the more narrow the airway. Therefore, the obstruction has increased or worsened. With no evidence of secretions, there is no support to indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezes changing from low-pitched to high-pitched and extending throughout exhalation suggest a progression in airway constriction, indicating an increase in airway obstruction. Option B is incorrect because the change in wheezes from low to high pitch does not suggest an improvement in airway obstruction. Option C is incorrect as there is no indication of secretions requiring suctioning. Option D is incorrect as hyperventilation is not typically associated with the described change in wheezes.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?
- A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
- B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
- C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
- D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.
Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?
- A. Increased anticoagulant use
- B. Increased risk of falls
- C. Brain atrophy
- D. Inconsistent care giving
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.
A victim of domestic violence states, 'If I were better, I would not have been beaten.' Which feeling best describes what the victim may be experiencing?
- A. Fear
- B. Helplessness
- C. Self-blame
- D. Rejection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is self-blame. In this scenario, the victim is attributing the abuse to their own inadequacies or faults, thinking that if they were different, the abuse would not occur. This is a common response seen in victims of domestic violence, where they wrongly internalize the blame for the abuser's actions. Fear (Choice A) is a valid emotion, but in this case, the victim is not expressing fear but rather self-blame. Helplessness (Choice B) is also a common feeling in victims of domestic violence, but in this specific statement, the victim is demonstrating self-blame. Rejection (Choice D) does not accurately reflect the victim's statement and emotional response in the given scenario.