Nokea
A child receives a vaccine for MMR. Six hours after the injection, the child’s parent reports local soreness, erythema, lethargy, and a fever of 101°F to a nurse. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Give instructions on relieving symptoms with acetaminophen
- B. Seek emergency help, because these symptoms are signs of anaphylactic reaction
- C. Tell the parent that a live vaccine will cause a mild case of measles
- D. Obtain and fill out a Vaccine Adverse Event Report form
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
You may also like to solve these questions
The BEST car safety issues for a 3-year-child is
- A. vehicle seat belt
- B. rear-facing safety seat
- C. forward-facing car seat
- D. lap and shoulder seat belts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Postanesthetic respiratory illness in premature infants should be avoided in infants younger than what postconceptual age?
- A. 44 weeks
- B. 46 weeks
- C. 48 weeks
- D. 50 weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?
- A. WBC of 3200 units/L
- B. RR of 26 breaths/min
- C. Temp of 38°C
- D. BP of 70/50
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.
A 6-year-old male child presented with a cerebellar mass; after undergoing complete surgical resection of the mass, the histology of the mass reveals pilocytic astrocytoma. Of the following, the MOST appropriate next step in the management is
- A. radiotherapy
- B. chemotherapy
- C. observation
- D. concomitant chemo-radiotherapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
- C. Heart rate 130/min
- D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.