A child was brought to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and fruity-scented breath. The resident on duty diagnosed the child with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Potassium chloride IV infusion.
- B. Dextrose 5% IV infusion.
- C. Ringer's Lactate.
- D. Normal saline IV infusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), there is a state of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Normal saline is the initial fluid of choice to help restore intravascular volume and improve electrolyte balance. It also helps to correct acidosis. Potassium chloride IV infusion is commonly added to the treatment regimen once kidney function is confirmed to prevent hypokalemia. Dextrose 5% IV infusion is not the first-line treatment for DKA as it can worsen hyperglycemia. Ringer's Lactate is not typically used as the initial fluid for managing DKA as it contains potassium and could worsen hyperkalemia.
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When drawing blood from the diabetic patient for a glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1c) test, the nurse explains to the woman that the test is used to determine:
- A. The highest glucose level in the past week.
- B. Her insulin levels.
- C. Glucose levels over the past three months.
- D. Her usual fasting glucose level.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1c) test reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past three months. It provides a more comprehensive view of the individual's glucose control compared to a single point-in-time measurement like a fasting glucose level or the highest glucose level in the past week. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on a single high glucose level rather than the overall control over a period. Choice B is incorrect as HBA1c is not a test for insulin levels. Choice D is incorrect as the HBA1c test does not reflect a single fasting glucose level but rather an average over a more extended period.
Atta, who weighs 20kg, has been prescribed amoxicillin 500 mg b.i.d. The drug information indicates a daily dose of amoxicillin at 50 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. What is the safest dose in milligrams for this child?
- A. 1000 mg
- B. 750 mg
- C. 500 mg
- D. 250 mg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the safest dose of amoxicillin for Atta, we multiply the weight (20kg) by the daily dose (50 mg/kg/day) which equals 1000 mg/day. Since the dose is to be given in two divided doses, the safest dose for each administration would be 500 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000 mg, as it aligns with the prescribed dose for this child based on weight and dosing guidelines. Choice B, 750 mg, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated daily dose. Choice C, 500 mg, is incorrect as it represents the safest dose for each administration, not the total daily dose. Choice D, 250 mg, is incorrect as it is below the calculated daily dose required for the child.
A mother visited your facility with the complaint of her child passing watery stools for two days. This is the first time the child is having such an experience. How will you describe such a visit?
- A. Initial
- B. Follow-up
- C. Routine visit
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Initial.' This visit is described as initial because it is the first time the child is experiencing these symptoms. It signifies the first encounter with healthcare professionals for this specific issue, distinguishing it from subsequent visits which would be follow-up appointments to monitor progress or routine visits for preventive care. Choice B, 'Follow-up,' is incorrect as it implies subsequent visits after the initial encounter. Choice C, 'Routine visit,' is also incorrect as it implies a scheduled visit for preventive care rather than a visit prompted by a new or acute issue. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as one of the options accurately describes the situation, which is 'Initial.'
Which type of diabetes mellitus (DM) is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, making it preventable?
- A. Type 1
- B. Type 2
- C. Type 1 and 2
- D. Gestational diabetes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, such as lifestyle choices and genetics, making it preventable. Type 1 diabetes, on the other hand, is an autoimmune condition that is not preventable. Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not entirely preventable. Type 1 and 2 diabetes are distinct conditions, with Type 2 being the type associated with preventable risk factors.
A mother of a 2-year-old child complains that her child has a fever, sore mouth, and red eye. What will be the possible diagnosis?
- A. TB
- B. Meningitis
- C. Measles
- D. Pertussis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Measles. Measles commonly presents with symptoms such as fever, sore mouth, and red eyes. These characteristic symptoms help differentiate measles from the other conditions listed. Tuberculosis (Choice A) typically presents with respiratory symptoms, Meningitis (Choice B) commonly presents with symptoms like headache, neck stiffness, and altered mental status, while Pertussis (Choice D) is characterized by severe coughing spells. Therefore, in this case, the symptoms described align more closely with measles.