Nokea
A client admitted to a health care facility with cardiac arrhythmia is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following would the nurse closely monitor as part of the ongoing assessment during the therapy?
- A. Pulse rate
- B. Tendon reflexes
- C. Hydration
- D. Visual acuity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During antiarrhythmic drug therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the client's pulse rate. A change in the pulse rate and rhythm will help the nurse assess a response to drug therapy, the development of signs of heart failure, the development of a new cardiac arrhythmia, or worsening of the arrhythmia being treated. It is not necessary to monitor the tendon reflexes, hydration, or visual acuity when administering an antiarrhythmic drug to the client.
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A client has been prescribed an antiarrhythmic. Which of the following points should the nurse include in the client teaching plan?
- A. Decrease the dose if adverse effects occur.
- B. Chew the tablets well before swallowing.
- C. Take frequent sips of water or chew gum.
- D. Take the drug only on an empty stomach.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take frequent sips of water or chew gum to avoid dryness of the mouth. The nurse should instruct the client not to stop the medication or change the dose and schedule without consulting the health care provider. The tablets should not be chewed or crushed. They should be swallowed whole. Taking the drug on an empty stomach may cause gastric upset. The drug should be taken with food.
A client with cardiac arrhythmia is prescribed verapamil. The nurse would instruct the client about which of the following as a possible adverse reaction?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hyperactivity
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the client that peripheral edema could be an adverse reaction to verapamil therapy. Diarrhea, hyperactivity, and hypertension are not adverse reactions associated with verapamil therapy. Other adverse reactions associated with verapamil are constipation, mental depression, and hypotension.
When explaining how verapamil (Calan) produces its effects on the cardiovascular system, which of the following would the nurse integrate into the explanation? Select all that apply.
- A. Reduction in the release of renin
- B. Dilation of coronary arteries
- C. Dilation of peripheral arteries
- D. Slowed conduction through the SA and AV nodes
- E. Membrane-stabilizing effects
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: Verapamil (Calan) is a calcium channel blocker. These drugs inhibit the movement of calcium through channels across the myocardial cell membranes and vascular smooth muscle. Cardiac and vascular smooth muscle depends on the movement of calcium ions into the muscle cells through specific ion channels. When this movement is inhibited, the coronary and peripheral arteries dilate, thereby decreasing the force of cardiac contraction. This drug also reduces heart rate by slowing conduction through the SA and AV nodes.
A nurse is preparing to administer an antiarrhythmic and identifies the drug as a class III potassium channel blocker. Which drug would the nurse be most likely to administer?
- A. Amiodarone
- B. Flecainide
- C. Mexiletine
- D. Propafenone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amiodarone is a class III potassium channel blocker. Flecainide, mexiletine, and propafenone are class I sodium channel blockers.
Which of the following is important for the nurse to remember when administering quinidine (Quinaglute) orally? Select all that apply.
- A. Quinidine can be administered with food to decrease GI upset.
- B. Quinidine can cause auditory adverse reactions.
- C. Quinidine can be crushed or chewed.
- D. Normal quinidine levels are between 7 and 10 mcg/mL.
- E. Quinidine levels must be monitored during therapy.
Correct Answer: A,B,E
Rationale: Quinidine can be administered with food to decrease GI upset and can cause ringing in the ears and hearing loss. Levels should be monitored during therapy to reduce the risk of quinidine toxicity. Quinidine should not be crushed or chewed, and normal quinidine levels are less than 6 mcg/mL.